Amity University Noida-B.Tech Admissions 2026
Among top 100 Universities Globally in the Times Higher Education (THE) Interdisciplinary Science Rankings 2026
JEE Main 2026 April 2 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solutions: The first shift of the JEE Main 2026 April session was successfully conducted. The NTA has released the official question papers for all JEE Main April session shifts on 9 April 2026. Students can download the JEE Main 2026 2nd April Shift 1 question paper in PDF format for free to cross-check their answers and estimate their scores. The memory-based JEE Mains 2026 April 2 Shift 1 question paper with solutions is also available. Along with the JEE Main 2026 question paper, students can also check a detailed exam analysis, including overall difficulty level, subject-wise analysis, and best revision tips for the coming shifts. Keep visiting this article for the latest updates. Along with this, students can also follow live updates for the JEE Main 2026 April 5 Shift 2 Question Paper.
Also Check: JEE Main 2026 April 6 Shift 1 Paper
This Story also Contains
JEE Mains 2026 April 2 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solutions Live Updates
Based on the JEE Main 2026 April 2 Shift 1 exam analysis, the paper is expected to be moderate in difficulty. JEE Mains April 4 paper is expected to be a balanced paper with a mix of concept-based and NCERT questions.
Experts suggest that, based on the JEE Mains 2026 April 2 shift question papers, the session 2 exams are expected to remain balanced and NCERT-based, with a mix of direct and concept-based questions.
The JEE Mains 2026 2nd April Shift 1 exam was moderate in difficulty. Based on the students reaction and expert analysis, the Expected Score to Percentile Range is provided below
Marks | Percentile |
200+ | 99 to 99.5+ |
180 to 199 | 99 to 99.5 |
150 to 179 | 97 to 99 |
120 to 149 | 94 to 97 |
Below 90 | Below 85 |
The overall difficulty level of the JEE Mains 2026 April 2 Physics section was easy. Physics JEE Main 2nd April morning shift paper was easy compared to maths and difficult compared to Chemistry. The 2nd April morning-shift Physics paper was easier than the Session 1, 2026 paper; the questions were simple, direct, and formula-based.
The JEE Mains April 2 Shift 1 paper was similar to the January 2026 session as the exam pattern was similar and questions from the same topic were asked. The overall difficulty level was moderate just as JEE Mains 2026 Session 1. No major changes were observed in the exam trend.
Candidates who sat for the JEE Mains 2 April Shift 1 question paper can download the full question paper with answers and analysis in PDF format from the table below. The link is live now:
Get expert advice on college selection, admission chances, and career path in a personalized counselling session.
For students who appeared in the JEE Mains April 2 Shift 1 question paper, detailed subject-wise review is shared below. This review covers how hard each section was, which topics came up the most. Check the table below for updates.
|
Subject |
Difficulty Level |
Key Observations |
| Easy to Moderate | Most of the questions were simple, direct, and formula-based | |
|
Moderate | Overall, the weightage of the three sections is inorganic > physical > Organic | |
|
Moderate to Difficult |
A significant number of questions in this session were more concept-driven rather than formula-based, testing their application skills. |
Also Read:
Among top 100 Universities Globally in the Times Higher Education (THE) Interdisciplinary Science Rankings 2026
Last Date to Apply: 29th April | Ranked #43 among Engineering colleges in India by NIRF | Highest Package 1.3 CR , 100% Placements
This is the most useful section for students who just finished the JEE Mains 2026 2nd April Shift 1 paper. Here all the memory-based questions from the JEE 2026 April 2 Shift 1 exam that students recall, along with full solutions are provided. You can use these to match your answers, estimate your marks, and figure out which topics were given the most weight in the paper.
Question1:
The dimension of $\frac{1}{2} \varepsilon_0 E^2$ is
1) $\mathrm{MLT}^{-2}$
2) $\mathrm{MLL}^{-1} \mathrm{~T}^{-2}$
3) $\mathrm{MLT}^{-1}$
4) $M L^{-1} T^{-1}$
Question 2:
A wooden cubic block of relative density. 0.4 is floating in water. Side of cubic block is 10 cm .
When a coin is placed on the block the dips 0.3 cm in equilibrium. Weight of coin is
1) 0.2 N
2) 30 N
30.3 N
4) 3 N
Question 3:
Consider two arrangements of wires, find ratio of magnetic field at centre of the semi-circular part.

1) $\frac{\pi+3}{\pi-1}$
2) $\frac{\pi+4}{\pi+2}$
3) $\frac{\pi+2}{\pi+1}$
4) $\frac{\pi-2}{\pi+1}$
Question 4 :
$\theta=\frac{t^4}{4}-t^2$ find $\alpha$ at $t=1 \mathrm{Sec}$
Question 5:
$\vec{\gamma}=10 t^2 \hat{\imath}+5 t^2 \hat{\jmath}$
(1) $\vec{\beta}=2 \hat{\imath}+1.5 \hat{\jmath}$
(2) $\vec{F}=2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{i}$
(3) $\vec{\imath}=5 \hat{k}$
(4) $\vec{\tau}=20 \hat{k}$
Question 6:
In isobaric reversible process on a diatomic gas, ratio of $\Delta Q: \Delta U: \mathrm{W}$ shall be
1) $7: 5: 2$
2) $5: 3: 2$
3) $3: 2: 1$
4) $6: 5: 1$
Question 7:
The velocity of a particle is given as $\vec{v}=-x \hat{\imath}+2 y \hat{\jmath}-2 \hat{k} \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$. The magnitude of acceleration at point $(1,2,4)$ is $\_\_\_\_$ $\mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}^2$ ?
Question 8:
In circular motion, angular position $\theta$ and time $t$ are related as $\theta=\frac{5 t^4}{4}-\frac{6 t^3}{3}$, then angular acceleration at $\mathrm{t}=10$ second is
1) $1180 \mathrm{rad} / \mathrm{s}^2$
2) $130 \mathrm{rad} / \mathrm{s}^2$
3) $1480 \mathrm{rad} / \mathrm{s}^2$
4) $98 \mathrm{rad} / \mathrm{s}^2$
Question 9:
The equation of a plane progressive wave is given by $y=5 \cos \pi\left(200 t-\frac{x}{150}\right)$. Where $x \& y$ are in cm and $t$ is in seconds. Find the wave velocity for the given wave function.
Question 10:
Angular momentum of the electron in a hydrogen atom is $\frac{3 h}{2 \pi}$, then find the energy of the electron in $\_\_\_\_$ ev.
Question 11:
For an ideal gas having $C_p=3 R$ and $C_v=2 R$. Find work done by one mole of the gas in adiabatic expansion when pressure reduces from 8 bar to 1 bar. (Initial temperature $=140^{\circ} \mathrm{C}$ )
1) $140 R$
2) 70 R
3) 826 R
4) $413 R$
Question 1:
The correct increasing order of bond length among the following is
$1 \mathrm{O}_2^{+}, \mathrm{O}_2, \mathrm{O}_2^{-}, \mathrm{O}_2^{2-}$
$2 \mathrm{O}_2^{+}, \mathrm{O}_2, \mathrm{O}_2^{2-}, \mathrm{O}_2^{-}$
$30_2^{2-}, 0_2^{-}, 0_2, 0_2^{+}$
$4 \mathrm{O}_2^{-}, \mathrm{O}_2^{2-}, \mathrm{O}_2^{+}, \mathrm{O}_2$
Question 2:
For first order reaction, rate constant at $27^{\circ} \mathrm{C}$ and $\mathrm{t}^{\circ} \mathrm{C}$ is $1.5 \times 10^3$ and $4.5 \times 10^3$ respectively. If the activation enesgy of reaction is 60 kJ then find temperature $t$.
Question 3:
Write the correct order of rate of reaction of following with $\mathrm{Ph} \mathrm{N}_2 \mathrm{Cl}$

1$ \quad $R $>$ P $>$ Q
2 $ \quad $P $>R>Q$
$3 \quad P>Q>R$
$4 \quad Q>P>R$
Question 4:
Compound of molecular formula $\mathrm{C}_5 \mathrm{H}_{10}$ can not decolorize Baeyer's reagent, how many monohalo products (Structural)are obtained by all isomers of $\mathrm{C}_5 \mathrm{H}_{10}$.
Question 5:
Which is decreasing priority order of given functional group
(A) amide > aldehyde > ketone > amine > alkyne
(B) aldehyde > amide > ketone > amine > alkyne
(C) aldehyde $>$ amide $>$ amine $>$ alkyne $>$ ketone
(D) alkyne > aldehyde > amide > amine > ketone
Question 6:
For Diatomic gas, find the ration of $\Delta Q: \Delta U: W$ for isobaric process
(A) 2:5:7
(B) $2: 3: 5$
(C) $2: 7: 3$
(D) $7: 5: 2$
Question 7:
Match List-I with List-II
| List-I | List-II |
|
Vitamin C Vitamin B1 Vitamin B6 Vitamin B2 |
(A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavin (C) Ascorbic Acid (D) Pyridoxin |
1 I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
2 I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
3 I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
4 I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
Question 8:
Arrange following functional group in the increasing order of priority of functional group:
$\underset{\text { (1) }}{-\mathrm{CONH}_2},-\underset{\text { (2) }}{\mathrm{C}}=\mathrm{O},-\underset{\text { (3) }}{\mathrm{CHO}},-\mathrm{CN},-\mathrm{C} \underset{\text { (4) }}{\mathrm{C}}=\mathrm{C},--\mathrm{NH}_2$
$1 \quad 1>4>2>3>6>5$
$2\quad1>4>2>3>5>6$
$3 \quad 1>4>3>2>6>5$
$4 \quad 1>2>4>3>6>5$
Question 9:
Which compound gives apple green colour in flame test?
$1 \quad\mathrm{BaSO}_4$
$2 \quad\mathrm{Mn}_3\left(\mathrm{PO}_4\right)_2$
$3 \quad\mathrm{Ca}_3\left(\mathrm{PO}_4\right) \mathrm{A}_2$
$4 \quad \mathrm{Al}_2\left(\mathrm{SO}_4\right)_3$
Question 10:
One mole of alkane reacts with 8 mole of $\mathrm{O}_2$. The molecular formula of alkane is
$1 \quad \mathrm{C}_4 \mathrm{H}_{10}$
$2 \quad \mathrm{C}_5 \mathrm{H}_{12}$
$3 \quad \mathrm{C}_7 \mathrm{H}_{14}$
$4 \quad \mathrm{C}_3 \mathrm{H}_8$
Question 11.
Consider the electrophilic attack on given compound

1 Predominately at U position
2 Predominately at R position
3 Predominately at $\mathbf{P}$ position
4 Predominately at S position
Question 1:
If $y=f(x)$ is the solution of the differential equation $(1+\sin x) \frac{d y}{d x}+\cos x=0$, such that $f(0)=0$, then $f\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)$ is equal to:
1. $\ln 2$
2. $-\ln 2$
3. $\ln 3$
4. $\ln 4$
Question 2:
If eccentricity of an of an ellipse $\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}=1$, which passes through point $(3,4)$ is $\frac{\sqrt{5}}{3}$, then length of latus rectum of ellipse is
(1) $\frac{4 \sqrt{5}}{3}$
(2) $\frac{8 \sqrt{5}}{3}$
(3) $\frac{4 \sqrt{7}}{3}$
(4) $\frac{8 \sqrt{7}}{3}$
Question 3:
How many seven-digit numbers can be formed using the digits $1,2,3,4$, and 5, such that each digit is used at least once?
(1) 16800
(2) 13200
(3) 15200
(4) 15800
Question 4:
Let $x \in[-\pi, \pi]$. Consider the set $S=\{x: \sin x(\sin x+\cos x)=a, a \in I\}$
where $I$ denotes the set of integers.
The number of elements in the set $S$ is:
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 9
(4) 4
Question 5:
Find the Range of $f(x)=\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{x^2-2 x+2}\right)$
(1) $\left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)$
(2) $\left[0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right]$
(3) $\left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right]$
(4) $\left[0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)$
Question 6:
The value of $\int_0^3 \frac{e^x+e^{-x}}{(|x|)!} d x$ equals (Here [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
$(1) \quad \frac{1}{2}\left(e^2+e^3-e^{-2}-e^{-3}\right)$
$(2)\quad e^2-e^3+e^{-2}-e^{-3}$
$(3) \quad \frac{1}{4}\left(e^2+e^3-e^{-2}-e^{-3}\right)$
$(4) \quad \frac{1}{2}\left(e^2+e-e^{-1}-e^{-2}\right)$
Question 7:
If the roots of the equation $x(x+2)+(x+1)(x+3)+\ldots+(x+(n-1))+(x+n+1)=4 n$ are $\alpha$ and $\alpha+2$. Then, the value of $|2 \alpha+n|$ is:
Question 8:
Find midpoint of sides of triangle ABC be $\left(\frac{5}{2}, 7\right),\left(\frac{5}{2}, 3\right)$ and $(4,5)$ If itsincenter is $(h, k)$ then $3 h+k$ is equal to:
Question 9:
Let $k=\sin \frac{\pi}{18} \cdot \sin \frac{5 \pi}{18} \cdot \sin \frac{7 \pi}{18} .$
Then, the value of $\sin \left(\frac{10 k \pi}{3}\right)$ is equal to:
Question 10:
$\lim _{x \rightarrow 2} \frac{\sin \left(x^3-5 x^2+a x+b\right)}{(\sqrt{x-1}-1) \log _r(x-1)}=m$, then $\mathbf{a}+\mathbf{b}+\mathbf{m}$ is equal to:
Question 11:
Let $\sum_{k=1}^n a_k=6 n^3$, then $\sum_{k=1}^6\left(\frac{a_{k+1}-a_k}{36}\right)^2$ equal to:
Students can refer to JEE Main 2026 April 2 Answer key. Using JEE Main 2026 2nd April Shift 1 answer key students can cross check their answers and estimate their expected scores.
As the JEE Mains April 2 paper Shift 1 successfully conducted, the Careers360 YouTube channel goes live with a team of expert teachers. They go through the full paper, talk about which questions were tricky, and give a clear picture of how hard the exam was overall. You can join the live session using the link below to get instant feedback on your performance.
Students who want to understand the pattern of this year's exam better can go through the JEE Main January 2026 session analysis below. Since the JEE Mains 2nd April Shift 1 paper follows a similar pattern, looking at January Shifts can give you a good sense of what to expect in terms of topics and difficulty.
Going through old papers is one of the smartest ways to prepare for JEE Main. Students searching for the JEE Mains 2026 April question paper should also look at previous year papers to understand the kind of questions that usually come up. You can find all past papers in the table below.
This table gives you a rough idea of what percentile you can expect based on your score. You can also use the JEE Main rank predictor.
|
Marks |
Expected Percentile |
|
300 – 291 |
100 – 99.999 |
|
290 – 280 |
99.998 – 99.996 |
|
279 – 271 |
99.994 – 99.991 |
|
268 – 259 |
99.990 – 99.976 |
|
258 – 250 |
99.974 – 99.952 |
|
249 – 240 |
99.950 – 99.915 |
|
239 – 230 |
99.913 – 99.870 |
|
229 – 220 |
99.861 – 99.781 |
|
219 – 210 |
99.774 – 99.691 |
|
209 – 200 |
99.684 – 99.575 |
|
199 – 190 |
99.560 – 99.408 |
|
189 – 180 |
99.393 – 99.173 |
|
179 – 170 |
99.156 – 98.879 |
|
169 – 160 |
98.851 – 98.528 |
|
159 – 150 |
98.498 – 98.092 |
|
149 – 140 |
98.074 – 97.543 |
|
139 – 130 |
97.492 – 96.878 |
|
129 – 120 |
96.809 – 96.068 |
|
119 – 110 |
95.983 – 95.056 |
|
109 – 100 |
94.967 – 93.802 |
|
99 – 90 |
93.679 – 92.218 |
|
89 – 80 |
92.058 – 90.276 |
|
79 – 70 |
90.044 – 87.518 |
|
69 – 60 |
87.336 – 83.890 |
|
59 – 50 |
83.511 – 78.351 |
|
49 – 40 |
77.819 – 69.579 |
|
39 – 30 |
68.802 – 56.091 |
|
29 – 20 |
54.010 – 36.584 |
|
19 – 10 |
35.288 – 18.166 |
|
9 – 0 |
17.145 – 5.714 |
The cutoff is the minimum score you need to qualify for JEE Advanced. The table below shows the expected JEE Main cutoff marks for different categories based on past trends and this year's difficulty level.
|
Category |
Expected Cutoff |
|
General (UR) |
93 – 95 |
|
OBC-NCL |
80 – 82 |
|
EWS |
80 – 82 |
|
SC |
60 – 62 |
|
ST |
47 – 49 |
Once you have a rough idea of your score from the JEE Mains 2026 April 2 Shift 1 question paper analysis, you can use the JEE Main College Predictor tool to find out which colleges you might be eligible for. Just put in your expected score and rank, and the tool will show you a list of colleges and courses that match your performance. It is a really helpful way to plan your next steps before counselling begins.
The NTA is expected to release the JEE Main 2026 Session 2 results for Paper 1 by April 20, 2026, on the official website jeemain.nta.nic.in. The April session exams are running from April 2 to April 9, 2026, and final scorecards along with All India Ranks will be available on the portal until July 31, 2026.
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
JEE Mains 2026 April 2 morning shift was moderate in difficulty. Questions were concept based and direct.
There are two Shifts for the JEE Mains April 2 Exam, one in the morning and one in the afternoon.
The April session runs from April 2 to April 8, 2026.
On Question asked by student community
Hello Student,
Please find the rank predictor tool in the following link.
Link - JEE Main Rank Predictor 2026
With 97.14% in JEE Mains as a Gen EW S female candidate, you secured a strong position in the Mid-tier NITs, IITs, and GFTs institutes. You should focus now on JEE Advanced to unlock your top IIT opportunities.
With a 94%ile in JEE Mains with the EWS category, you secured a strong position in CSE at the government college in UP. You should prioritize counseling for MMMUT Gorakhpur, HBTU Kanpur, or lower-ranked NITs/IIITs where EWS category can significantly improve your chances.
With 88%ile in JEE Main and 956 marks in IPE, your chances of getting ECE in the Sastra Tanjavur campus are heavily dependent on the final cutoff. At Sastra Tanjavur, admission to ECE is competitive but possible.
NTA releases the JEE Main 2026 April 7 shift 2 answer key for barch on April 20, 2026, on its official website.
Also check: JEE Main 2026 April 7 shift 2 B.Arch answer key
Among top 100 Universities Globally in the Times Higher Education (THE) Interdisciplinary Science Rankings 2026
Last Date to Apply: 29th April | Ranked #43 among Engineering colleges in India by NIRF | Highest Package 1.3 CR , 100% Placements
Recognized as Institute of Eminence by Govt. of India | NAAC ‘A++’ Grade | Upto 75% Scholarships
Last Date to Apply: 26th April | NAAC A++ Accredited | NIRF Rank #3
NAAC A++ Grade | Recognized as Category-1 Deemed to be University by UGC | 41,000 + Alumni Imprints Globally
NAAC A+ Accredited | Among top 2% Universities Globally (QS World University Rankings 2026)