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JEE Main 2026 Question Paper - The Joint Entrance Examination or JEE Main is one of the exams that everyone is talking about in India. According to reports, it is always one of the exams that students compete for just to gain admission into some of the best colleges in India, usually the IITs and the NITs. Now that the JEE Main 2025 journey has ended, the roadmap for 2026 preparation begins. This is the right moment for aspirants to organize their study plans and get a head start. A strong beginning now can pave the way for top scores in JEE Main 2026. The exam is expected in two cycles—January and April 2026—with Session 1 registration anticipated in November 2025.
Well, this will help students to prepare for the examination in a very strategic way. So, we have some details and tips for better preparation. Download the 2026 question paper for both Jan and April session paper from below! JEE Main answer key is released. For counselling you can join us online and offline as well via register on below link.
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By checking the JEE Main 2026 Question Paper with Answers students can gauge their performance and see whether they are on track with their preparation. Knowing the correct answers will clear doubts while reinforcing important concepts. It is important to forget only the answers, but also try to know the methods of how these answers come by.
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The JEE Main 2026 Question Paper with Answers will be available on this page after it is officially released on the website. These resources can help in the cross-checking of answers and help to understand different approaches to problem-solving.
A fractional errors in
1) 0.2
2) 0.7
3) 0.6
4) 0.3
The number of rational terms in the binomial expansion of
1) 129
2) 128
3) 127
4) 130
Consider the following statement
Statement I:
Statement II :
In light of the above statement, choose the correct option
1 Statement-1 is true & Statement-II is false
2 Statement-I is false & Statement-Il is true
3 Both Statement-I & Statement-II are true
4 Both Statement-1 & Statement-II are false
Q.1 Consider the following oxides
Number of oxides which are acidic is
Consider the following complex compound
The value of
Q 2. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Refractive index of glass is more than air.
Reason (R) : Optical density of a medium is directly related to its mass density.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. (A) is false but (R) is true
2. (A) is true but (R) is false
3. Both
4. Both
Q 3. If
1) 2
2) 4
3) 1
4) 6
Q.1. A compound having molecular formula
Q 2. The dimensions of a physical quantity
1. Electric Current
2. Electric Field
3. Electric Flux
4. Electric Charge
Q 3. The remainder when
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Q.1 Maximum IE and minimum IE of group 13 elements
Q.2 Total number of electrons in chromium
Q 1.
Q 2.
Q 3. Let
Q 1) A disc is performing pure rolling if speed of top point is
April 4 Shift 1
Q.1 In the following, the number of paramagnetic molecules are :
Q.2 Which of the following is the ratio of
1)
2)
3)
4)
Q 1. Solve
1)
2)
3)
4)
Q 2. If the equation of an ellipse
Q 1) A ring and a solid sphere were released from rest from the same height on enough rough inclined surface. Ratio of their speed when they reach at bottom is
Q 2) Mean free path for an ideal gas is to be observed
April 3 Shift 2
Q.1 Find out the magnitude of work done in the process ABCD (in kJ) (1 atm. Lit = 101.3 J)
Q.2 Amount of magnesium (Mg) (in mg ) required to liberate 224 mL of
Q.3 Among Sc, Ti, Mn and Co, Calculate the spin only magnetic moment in +2 oxidation state of metal having highest heat of atomisation.
Q.4 Statement-1: Wet cotton cloths made up of cellulose based carbo hydrate Takes comparatively longer time to get dried than wet nylon based clothes
Statement - 2: Intermolecular hydrogen bonding with water molecule is more In nylon based clothes than in cotton clothes.
1. Statement - 1 and Statement - 2 are correct
2. Statement - 1 and Statement -
3. Statement - 1 is true and Statement - 2 is false
4. Statement -
Q 5)An equilateral prism is made of a material of refractive index
Q 6) The moment of inertia of a ring of mass
Q 7) What is the dimensional formula of
Q 8) Two water drops each of radius of r coalesce to form a bigger drop. If T is the surface tension, surface energy released in this process is
Q 9) A particle moves on a circular path of radius 1 m. Find its displacement when it moves from
Q 10) A disc of mass
Maths Questions
Q 1. Let A be 3 × 3 matrix such that det ( A ) = 5 . If det ( 3 adj ( 2 A adj ( 2 A ) ) ) = 2 α ⋅ 3 β ⋅ 5 γ , then ( α + β + γ ) is equal to
1. 25
2. 26
3. 27
4. 28
Q 2. The sum of all rational numbers in ( 2 + 3 ) 8 is
1. 18117
2. 18817
3. 17280
4. 1800
Q 3. If the sum ∑ r = 1 9 ( r + 3 r ) ⋅ 9 C r = α ⋅ ( 3 2 ) 9 − β , then the value of ( α + β ) 2 is equal to
1. 9
2. 81
3. 27
4. 36
3 april shift 1
Q.1 Which of the following ion shows spin only magnetic moment of 4.9 B.M.
1) Mn 2 +
2) Cr 2 +
3) Fe 3 +
4) Co 2 +
Q.2 Which of following has highest atomic number
1 Po
2 Pt
3 Pr
4 Pb
Q.3 An ideal gas with an adiabatic exponent 1.5 , initially at 27 ∘ C is compressed adiabatically from 800 cc to 200 C . The final temperature of the gas is
(A) 700 K
(B) 500 K
(C) 250 K
(D) 600 K
Q.4 2 moles each of ethylene glycol and glucose are mixed with 500 g of water. Find the boiling point of solution.
Given : K b = 0.52 K kg mol − 1
1 377.16 K
2 368.84 K
3 376.16 K
4 369.84 K
Q.5 0.5 g of an organic compound gives 1.46 g CO 2 and 0.9 g H 2 O . What is the % of carbon in organic sample.
Physics
Q 1) An ideal gas with an adiabatic exponent 1.5 , initially at 27 ∘ C is compressed adiabatically from 800 cc to 200 cc . The final temperature of the gas is
Q 2) In YDSE, light of intensity of 4 I and 9 I passes through two slits respectively. The difference of maximum and minimum intensity of the interference pattern is
The details of the april 2 shift 1 and 2 questions are given below
The JEE Main 2025 Session 2 paper was relatively moderate compared to both Session 1 and JEE Main 2024. The overall difficulty level followed the order: Chemistry > Physics > Mathematics. A higher proportion of questions were asked from Class 12 compared to Class 11. Chemistry was notably more difficult than both Mathematics and Physics, with the paper being moderate to tough as the questions did not follow predictable patterns. Meanwhile, Physics and Mathematics contained tricky questions, requiring careful analysis. Additionally, the paper included a few assertion and reason-type questions.
Some questions from both shifts are given below:
Chemistry
Q.1 Which of the following statement(s) is correct is/are for the adiabatic process?
A. Molar heat capacity is zero.
B. Molar heat capacity is infinite.
C. Work done on gas is equal to increase in internal energy
D. The increase in temperature results in decrease in internal energy
1 A and C only
2 B and C only
3 A and D only
Q.2 Which does not follow general trends among Halogens
(1) I. E
(2) Electro Affinity
(3) Ionic Radius
(4) Covalent Radius
Q.3 Relation between magnetic sucesptibility and magnetic permeability
Q.4 Which Amino acids is optically inactive
(1) Alanine
(2) Glycine
(3) Valine
(4) Aspartic Acid
Physics
Q.1 What is the units of viscosity, intensity of wave, and pressure gradient
Q.2 The figure shows an infinite plane having uniform charge density σ and a small charged particle having charge q and mass m suspended by a light insulating thread. Find σ if the charge is in equilibrium.
1 2 f 0 m g q
2 ε 0 m g 2 q
3 2 q ε 0 m g
4 2 q ε 0 m g
Q.3 Find the ratio of ( γ = C p C v ) for two gases having degree of freedoms f = 3 and f = 5 .
Q.4 The ratio of the magnetic field to the center of the circular coil to the magnetic field at a distance x from the center of a circular coil
( x R = 3 / 4 )
Q.5 Two point charges q and 9 q are placed at a distance of l from each other. Then the electric field is zero at a
1 Distance l 4 from charge 9 q
2 Distance 3 l 4 from charge q 3 Distance l 3 from charge 9 q
4 Distance l 4 from charge q
Q 1. Total number of terms in an A.P are even. Sum of odd terms is 24 and sum of even terms is 30. Last term exceeds the first term by 212. Find the total number of terms.
Q 2. If the domain of the function f(x)=13x+10−x2+1x+|x| is (a,b) then (1+a)2+b2 is equal to
1. 25
2. 16
3. 24
4. 26
Q 3. If θ∈[−7π6,4π3], then number solutions of 3cosec2θ−2(3−1)cosecθ−4=0, is
Q 4. Find the eccentricity of ellipse in which length of minor axis is equal to onefourth of the distance between foci
1. 4 17
2. 2 17
3. 7 17
4. 8 17
Q 1. Total number of terms in an A.P are even. Sum of odd terms is 24 and sum of even terms is 30. Last term exceeds the first term by 212. Find the total number of terms.
Q 2. If the domain of the function f(x)=13x+10−x2+1x+|x| is (a,b) then (1+a)2+b2 is equal to
1. 25
2. 16
3. 24
4. 26
Q 3. If θ∈[−7π6,4π3], then number solutions of 3cosec2θ−2(3−1)cosecθ−4=0, is
Q 1. Find the maximum value of n such that 50 ! is divisible by 3 n .
Q 2. Let P n = α n + β n , P 10 = 123 , P 9 = 76 , P 8 = 47 and P 1 = 1 , the quadratic equation whose roots are 1 α and 1 β .
1. x 2 + x − 1 = 0
2. x 2 − 2 x + 1 = 0
3. x 2 + x − 2 = 0
4. x 2 − x − 2 = 0
Q 3. Number of solutions in [ − 2 π , 2 π ] for equation 2 2 cos 2 θ + ( 2 − 6 ) cos θ − 3 = 0 .
Q 4. The total number of 10 digits sequences formed by only { 0 , 1 , 2 } where 1 should be used at least 5 times and 2 should be used exactly three times, is
Q 5. Let a 1 , a 2 , a 3 , … . is an A.P. and ∑ k = 1 12 a 2 k − 1 = − 72 5 a 1 and ∑ k = 1 n a k = 0 . Then the value of n is
Q.6 Which of the following statement(s) is correct is/are for the adiabatic process?
A. Molar heat capacity is zero.
B. Molar heat capacity is infinite.
C. Work done on gas is equal to increase in internal energy
D. The increase in temperature results in decrease in internal energy
1 A and C only
2 B and C only
3 A and D only
Q.7 What is the units of viscosity, intensity of wave and pressure gradient
Q.8 Which does not follow general trends among Halogens
(1) I. E
(2) Electro Affinity
(3) Ionic Radius
(4) Covalent Radius
Q.9 The figure shows an infinite plane having uniform charge density σ and a small charged particle having charge q and mass m suspended by a light insulating thread. Find σ if the charge is in equilibrium.
1 2 f 0 m g q
2 ε 0 m g 2 q
3 2 q ε 0 m g
4 2 q ε 0 m g
Q.10 Find the ratio of ( γ = C p C v ) for two gases having degree of freedoms f = 3 and f = 5 .
Q.11 Relation between magnetic sucesptibility and magnetic permeability
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Q. For [ NiCl 4 ] − 2 What is the charge on metal and shape of complex respectively?
(1) +2 , tetrahedral
(2) +2 , square planar
(3) +4 , tetrahedral
(4) +4, square planar
Q. Solid sphere of mass M , radius R exerts force F on a point mass. Now a concentric spherical mass M 7 is removed. What is new force?
(1) F 7
(2) 6 7 F
(3) 5 F 7
(4) 3 F 7
Q. Form a 5 letter word is to be made using any distinct 5 alphabets such that middle alphabet is M and letter should be in increasing order.
Q. Electrolysis of which compound Give H 2 S 2 O 3
a) Electrolysis of Conc. Na 2 SO 4
b) Electrolysis of Dil. Na 2 SO 4
c) Électrolysis of Conc. H 2 SO 4
d) Electrolysis of Dil. H 2 SO 4
Q. Compare boiling point of given solutions
(i) 10 − 4 . NaCl
(i) 10 − 3 NaCl
(iii) 10 − 2 NaCl
(iv) 10 − 4 urea
(1) I > II > III > N
(2) III > II > I > N
(3) il > I > ili > N
(4) III > II > II > N
Q. Let the triangle PQR be the image of the triangle with vertices ( 1 , 3 ) , ( 3 , 1 ) ( 2 , 4 ) in the line x + 2 y = 2 . if the centroid of △ PQR is the point ( α , β ) then 15 ( α − β ) is equation
Q. Find the Radius of Curvature of the Common surface of two bubble ( R 1 > R 2 )
a) R = R 1 R 2 R 1 + R 2
b) R = 2 R 1 R 2 R 1 − R 2
c) R = R 1 R 2 R 1 − R 2
d) R = R 1 R 2 R 1 − R 2
Q. A Parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 40 μ F is connected to a 100V power supply now the intermediate space between the plates is filled with a drelectric material of dielectric constant k = 2 . due to the introductiuon dielectric the extra charge and the change in electrostatic energy in the capacitor respectively or
(a) 2 mc and 0.4 J
(b) 2 mc and 0.2 J
(c) 4 mc and 0.2 J
(d) 8 mc and 2.J
Q. Given a 1 , a 2 , a 3 … are in GP such that a 1 a 5 = 28 and a 2 + a 4 = 29 find a 6 ?
Q. The correct order of electronegativity
1. F > Cl > Br > I
2. Cl > F > Br > I
3. F > Cl > I > Br
4. Br > F > I > Cl
Q. which of the following lanthanide ion as 7 e − in the outer moss shell
a) Eu + 3
3) G d + 3
c) Eu + 2
d) G d + 2
22 Jan Shift 2
Q. if 2 x 2 + ( cos θ ) x − 1 = 0 θ ∈ [ 0 , 2 π ] has roots α + β . Then the sum of maximum and minimum value of α 4 + β 4 is
4) 25 / 16
b) 9 / 16
c) 41 / 16
d) 8 / 17
Q. Which of the following doesn't show disproportionation reaction
(1) ClO −
(2) ClO 2 −
(3) ClO 3 −
(4) ClO 4 −
Q. Density of 3M NaOH is 1.25 g/mol. Molarity of the solution is _____.
Q. A ball of mass 100 grams throw m at speed 20 m / s with angle 60 percent degree with horizontal. Now tell the decrease in kinetic energy from point of throwing to the ball when it reaches to Max height basically a projectile question
Q. Which of the following has "two secondary hydrogens"
(1) 2,2,3,3-Dimethyl Pentane
(2) 2,2,4,4-Dimethyl Heptane
(3) 4- Ethyl-2,2 Di methyl hexane
(4) None of these
Q. If θ ∈ ( 0 , 2 π ] satisfying the system of equations 2 sin 2 θ = cos 2 θ and 2 cos 2 θ = 3 sin θ . Then the sum of all real values of θ is
1 3 π 2 2 π 3 π 2 4 5 π 6
Q. Arrange according to CFSE.
(i) [ Co ( NH 3 ) 4 ] 2 +
(ii) [ Co ( NH 3 ) 6 ] 3 +
(iii) [ Co ( NH 3 ) 6 ] 2 +
(iv) [ Co ( en ) 3 ] 3 +
1) (iv) > (ii) > (iii) ) > ( (i)
2) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
3) (i) > (iii) ) > (ii) > (iv)
4) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
Q. Find the correct dimensional formula for the capacitance in terms of M, L, T and C where they stand for unit of mass, length, time and charge.
Q.1 Which of the following element doesn't lie on same period
(a) Osmium
(b) Iridium
(c) Palladium
(d) Platinum
Q.2
Which of the following pair of ions are same coloured?
1 Ti 4 + , V 3 + 2 Cr 2 + , Cu 2 + 3 Cr 3 + , Ni 2 + 4 Mn 3 + , Fe 2 +
Q.3 Which of the following react with Hinsberg reagent?
(A) Aniline
(B) N , N -Dimethyl aniline
(C) Methyl amine
(D) C 6 H 5 NHC 6 H 5
. A only
. A and C only
. A , C and D
. A and B only
Q.4
CH 3 CH 2 CH = 0 → Excess HCHO [ A ]
Major product [ A ] will be:
Q.5
Statement 1: Fructose can give tollens test even though it does not have aldehyde group
Statement 2: When reacted with base fructose can undergo rearrangement to produce aldehyde group
(1) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and the Statement 2 is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
(4) If the Statement 1 and Statement 2 both are false.
Here are the steps to download the JEE Mains 2026 question paper with solutions once it gets released:
Go to the official website.
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Simply download it and view the file.
Time Management: Solving the test papers will enable students to get used to the pressure of time that they will encounter on the day of the examination. They will know and manage the time they have taken to solve every section. They will thus try to expedite the process of decision-making.
Identifying Strengths and Weaknesses: It is also through solving the JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Solutions that the student gets to know which are his or her strong subjects and where more practice is needed.
Getting Acquainted with Exam Pattern: The exam pattern can change from year to year, and thus solving the previous years' question papers, such as the JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Answers, helps a student to get accustomed to any change in the pattern.
Boosting Confidence: More practice papers will only give students the sense of being familiar and confident about solving various types of questions that may arise in the actual examination.
Mode of Examination | Computer-based test (CBT) for all papers. |
Total Duration | 3 hours (180 minutes) |
Sections | 3 Sections – Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics |
Total Number of Questions | 75 questions (25 questions from each subject) |
Question Type | - Objective-type questions (Multiple Choice Questions - MCQs) - Numerical Answer Type (NAT) questions |
Distribution of Questions | - Physics: 25 Questions (MCQs + NAT) - Chemistry: 25 Questions (MCQs + NAT) - Mathematics: 25 Questions (MCQs + NAT) |
Marking Scheme | - MCQs: +4 marks for correct answer, -1 mark for incorrect answer. - NAT: +4 marks for correct answer, no negative marking for wrong answers. |
Total Marks | 300 Marks (Each section will carry 100 marks) |
Sections Breakdown | - Physics: 20 MCQs + 5 NATs - Chemistry: 20 MCQs + 5 NATs - Mathematics: 20 MCQs + 5 NATs |
Mode of Answering | - For MCQs: Select one correct option. - For NAT: Type the correct numerical answer. |
The JEE Main 2026 Question Paper will be available after the exam is conducted.
The JEE Main 2026 Question Paper PDF can be downloaded from the official website after the exam is held.
For MCQs, +4 marks will be there for correct answers and -1 for incorrect answers. For NAT, +4 marks with no negative marking.
With 64 percentile and a CRL rank around 5.4 lakh in JEE Mains 2025, getting admission in any NIT or IIIT is very unlikely, especially in the general category. Most NITs close their admissions below a rank of 1.5 lakh, and even the newer NITs usually fill seats by around 3 to 3.5 lakh rank. IIITs generally have closing ranks below 3 lakh.
Instead, you can try for state government engineering colleges through your state counselling or look for private engineering colleges that have lower cutoff ranks. Another option is to explore management quota or direct admission routes if available.
HEY THERE!!!
Hello Aspirant,
If your B.Arch rank is approximately 30,000 in JEE in general category, it might not be easy to get admission into DR-CUET (Delhi Regional Centre of the Central University of Technology) or comparable or significantly better institutions, and therefore, the cut-off is much earlier for general candidates in good reputation colleges at about a range of 5000-15,000 rank. That said, you may still have a chance at newer or even less reputed NITs, SPAs, or GFTIs as an option at JOSAA or CSAB; you are recommended to apply in all rounds of counselling, keep open state-level architecture colleges too, and explore private universities that are accepting NATA or JEE B.Arch scores.
With a JEE B.Arch rank of 30,000, getting admission in DCRUST is not possible because their cutoff ranks are much lower and they mainly consider NATA scores, not JEE Paper 2.
You can try these options instead:
Apply to other colleges accepting NATA scores.
Consider management quota seats in private colleges.
Prepare and appear for NATA exam for better chances.
With a JEE Advanced rank of 20,340, your son can likely get admission in newer IITs like IIT Bhubaneswar, Gandhinagar, Ropar, Mandi, Indore, Patna, or Jodhpur, mostly in less competitive branches.
Top IITs and popular branches like CS or ECE are unlikely.
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Energy efficiency engineering is a broad field of engineering which deals with energy efficiency, energy services, facility management, plant engineering, and sustainable energy resources. Energy efficiency engineering is one of the most recent engineering disciplines to emerge. The field combines the knowledge and understanding of physics, chemistry, and mathematics, with economic and environmental engineering practices. The main job of individuals who opt for a career as an energy performance engineer is to find the most efficient and sustainable path to operate buildings and manufacturing processes.
Individuals who opt for a career as energy performance engineers apply their understanding and knowledge to increase efficiency and further develop renewable sources of energy. The energy efficiency engineers also examine the use of energy in those procedures and suggest the ways in which systems can be improved.
A geologist attempts to comprehend the historical backdrop of the planet we live on, all the more likely to anticipate the future and clarify current events. He or she analyses the components, deployments, results, physical characteristics, and past of the planet. A geologist examines the landforms and landscapes of the earth in relation to the geology, climatic, and human processes that have shaped them.
A geologist studies earth procedures, for example, seismic tremors, avalanches, floods, and volcanic eruptions to review land and draw up safe structure plans. When he or she researches earth materials, explores metals and minerals, yet in addition search for oil, petroleum gas, water, and strategies to extricate these.
A career as a Petroleum engineer is concerned with activities related to producing petroleum. These products can be in the form of either crude oil or natural gas. Petroleum engineering also requires the exploration and refinement of petroleum resources. Therefore, a career as a petroleum engineer comes up with oil and gas onshore jobs. There are also desk jobs in the petroleum industry. In layman’s terms, a petroleum engineer is a person who finds the best way to drill and extract oil from oil wells. Individuals who opt for a career as petroleum engineer also tries to find new ways to extract oil in an efficient manner.
A career as Transportation Planner requires technical application of science and technology in engineering, particularly the concepts, equipment and technologies involved in the production of products and services. In fields like land use, infrastructure review, ecological standards and street design, he or she considers issues of health, environment and performance. A Transportation Planner assigns resources for implementing and designing programmes. He or she is responsible for assessing needs, preparing plans and forecasts and compliance with regulations.
A career as a civil engineer is of great importance for the infrastructural growth of the country. It is one of the most popular professions and there is great professional as well as personal growth in this civil engineering career path. There is job satisfaction in this civil engineering career path, but it also comes with a lot of stress, as there are multiple projects that need to be handled and have to be completed on time. Students should pursue physics, chemistry and mathematics in their 10+2 to become civil engineers.
A career as a Transportation Engineer is someone who takes care of people's safety. He or she is responsible for designing, planning and constructing a safe and secure transportation system. The transportation sector has seen a huge transformation and is growing day by day and improving every day.
As a Transport Engineer, he or she needs to solve complex problems such as accidents, costs, traffic flow, and statistics. A Transport Engineer also collaborates for projects with some other companies.
A Loco Pilot operates trains, ensuring safe and timely transport of passengers or goods. Starting as an Assistant Loco Pilot, one can progress to senior roles with experience. The job demands technical knowledge, focus, and adherence to safety protocols. It involves coordination with train staff and may require working long hours under pressure.
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