JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Solutions Available - Download Shift 1, 2 Free PDFs

JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Solutions Available - Download Shift 1, 2 Free PDFs

Edited By Shivani Poonia | Updated on May 15, 2025 03:50 PM IST | #JEE Main

JEE Main 2025 Question Paper - The Joint Entrance Examination or JEE Main is one of the exams that everyone is talking about in India. According to reports, it is always one of the exams that students compete for just to gain admission into some of the best colleges in India, usually the IITs and the NITs. Now that the JEE Main 2025 journey has ended, the roadmap for 2026 preparation begins. This is the right moment for aspirants to organize their study plans and get a head start. A strong beginning now can pave the way for top scores in JEE Main 2026. The exam is expected in two cycles—January and April 2026—with Session 1 registration anticipated in November 2025.

This Story also Contains
  1. JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Solutions
  2. Watch live analysis 8 April Shift 2
  3. JEE Main 2025 Memory Based Questions
  4. April 8 Shift 2 (ONLY 1 SHIFT)
  5. April 7 Shift 2
  6. April 7 Shift 1
  7. April 4 Shift 2
  8. Memory Based questions
  9. JEE Main April 3 Shift 1 Question Paper
  10. JEE Main April 2 All Shift Question Paper
  11. April 2 Shift 2 Questions
  12. April 2 Shift 1 Questions
  13. JEE Main 2025 April session Question Paper PDF Free Download
  14. JEE Main 2025 Question Paper PDF Free Download
  15. Memory Based Questions JEE Main 2025 Exam January Session
  16. Memory Based Questions of Jan 22 Shift 2 JEE Main 2025 Exam
  17. Memory Based Questions of Jan 23 Shift 1 JEE Main 2025 Exam
  18. How to download the JEE Main 2025 Question Paper With Solutions?
  19. How Preparing for JEE Main 2025 Question Paper Assists in Exam Preparation
  20. Exam Pattern of JEE Main 2025
JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Solutions Available - Download Shift 1, 2 Free PDFs
JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Solutions Available - Download Shift 1, 2 Free PDFs

Well, this will help students to prepare for the examination in a very strategic way. So, we have some details and tips for better preparation. Download the 2025 question paper for both Jan and April session paper from below! JEE Main answer key is released. For counselling you can join us online and offline as well via register on below link.

Careers360 COunselling online and offline - Counselling Link

JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Solutions

By checking the JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Answers students can gauge their performance and see whether they are on track with their preparation. Knowing the correct answers will clear doubts while reinforcing important concepts. It is important to forget only the answers, but also try to know the methods of how these answers come by.

UPES B.Tech Admissions 2025

Ranked #42 among Engineering colleges in India by NIRF | Highest Package 1.3 CR , 100% Placements | Last Date to Apply: 18th May

ICFAI University Hyderabad B.Tech Admissions 2025

Merit Scholarships | NAAC A+ Accredited | Top Recruiters : E&Y, CYENT, Nvidia, CISCO, Genpact, Amazon & many more

The JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Answers will be available on this page after it is officially released on the website. These resources can help in the cross-checking of answers and help to understand different approaches to problem-solving.

Watch live analysis 8 April Shift 2

JEE Main 2025 Memory Based Questions

April 8 Shift 2 (ONLY 1 SHIFT)

A fractional errors in $x, y$ and $z$ are $0.1,0.2$ and 0.5 respectively. Find the maximum fractional error in $x^{-2} y^{\frac{3}{2}} z^{-\frac{2}{5}}$.

1) 0.2

2) 0.7

3) 0.6

4) 0.3

The number of rational terms in the binomial expansion of $\left(5^{\frac{1}{2}}+7^{\frac{1}{8}}\right)^{1016}$ is

1) 129

2) 128

3) 127

4) 130

Consider the following statement

Statement I: $\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{Se}$ is more acidic than $\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{Fe}$
Statement II : $\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{Se}$ has higher bond dissociation Enthalpy
In light of the above statement, choose the correct option

1 Statement-1 is true & Statement-II is false

2 Statement-I is false & Statement-Il is true
3 Both Statement-I & Statement-II are true
4 Both Statement-1 & Statement-II are false

April 7 Shift 2

Q.1 Consider the following oxides

$$
\mathrm{V}_2 \mathrm{O}_5, \mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_3, \mathrm{Mn}_2 \mathrm{O}_7, \mathrm{~V}_2 \mathrm{O}_3, \mathrm{VO}_2
$$
Number of oxides which are acidic is $\mathbf{x}$.
Consider the following complex compound $\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{NH}_2\right)_3\right]_2\left(\mathrm{SO}_4\right)_3$ the primary valency of comple $x$ is $y$
The value of $x+y$ is

Q 2. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Refractive index of glass is more than air.
Reason (R) : Optical density of a medium is directly related to its mass density.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (A) is false but (R) is true

2. (A) is true but (R) is false

3. Both $(A)$ and $(R)$ are true but $(R)$ is NOT the correct explanation of $(A)$

4. Both $(A)$ and $(R)$ are true and $(R)$ is the correct explanation of $(A)$

Q 3. If $x|x-3|+3|x-2|+1=0$, then the number of real solution is

1) 2

2) 4

3) 1

4) 6

April 7 Shift 1

Q.1. A compound having molecular formula $\mathrm{MX}_3$ has van't hoff factor of 2. What is the degree of dissociation?
$1 \quad 0.25$
$2 \quad0.5$
$3 \quad 0.3$
$4 \quad 0.75$

Q 2. The dimensions of a physical quantity $\varepsilon_0 \frac{d \phi_E}{d t}$ are similar to [Symbols have their usual meanings]

1. Electric Current

2. Electric Field

3. Electric Flux

4. Electric Charge

Q 3. The remainder when $64^{64^{64}}$ is divided by 7 is equal to

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

April 4 Shift 2

Q.1 Maximum IE and minimum IE of group 13 elements

$1 \quad B, \ln$

$2 \quad B, TI$
$3 \quad \mathrm{Al}, \mathrm{In}$
$4 \quad\mathrm{Al}, \mathrm{Tl}$

Q.2 Total number of electrons in chromium $(Z=24)$ for which the value of azimuthal quantum number $(\mathrm{I})$ is 1 and 2

Q 1. $\cot ^{-1}\left(\frac{7}{4}\right)+\cot ^{-1}\left(\frac{19}{4}\right)+\cot ^{-1}\left(\frac{39}{4}\right)+\cdots \infty$

$\begin{aligned} 1) & \cot ^{-1}(2) \\ 2)& \cot ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) \\ 3)& \cot ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{3}\right) \\ 4) & \cot ^{-1}(3)\end{aligned}$

Q 2. $\sum_{k=1}^n\left(\alpha^k+\frac{1}{\alpha^k}\right)^2=20, \alpha$ is one of the root of $x^2+x+1=0$ then $n=$ ?

Q 3. Let $L_1: \frac{x-1}{3}=\frac{y}{4}=\frac{z}{5}$ and $L_2: \frac{x-p}{2}=\frac{y}{3}=\frac{z}{4}$. If the shortest distance between $L_1$ and $L_2$ is $\frac{1}{\sqrt{6}}$. Then possible value of $p$ is

Q 1) A disc is performing pure rolling if speed of top point is $8 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$. Find speed of point B.

April 4 Shift 1

Memory Based questions

Q.1 In the following, the number of paramagnetic molecules are : $\mathrm{O}_2, \mathrm{~N}_2, \mathrm{~F}_2, \mathrm{~B}_2, \mathrm{Cl}_2$

Q.2 Which of the following is the ratio of $5^{\text {th }}$ Bohr orbit $\left(r_5\right)$ of $\mathrm{He}^{+} \& \mathrm{Li}^{2+}$ ?
1) $\frac{2}{3}$
2) $\frac{3}{2}$
3) $\frac{9}{4}$
4) $\frac{4}{9}$

Q 1. Solve $\int_{-1}^1 \frac{1+2 x}{e^{-x}+e x} d x$.

1) $2\left(\tan ^{-1} e-\frac{\pi}{4}\right)$
2) $2\left(\tan ^{-1} e-\frac{\pi}{3}\right)$
3) $2\left(\tan ^{-1} e-\frac{\pi}{2}\right)$
4) $2\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-\tan ^{-1} \pi\right)$

Q 2. If the equation of an ellipse $E$ is $\frac{x^2}{9}+\frac{y^2}{16}=1$, then the length of latus rectum of $E$ is

$\begin{aligned} 1) & \frac{32}{5} \\ 2) & \frac{9}{2} \\ 3) & \frac{16}{3} \\ 4) & \frac{9}{5}\end{aligned}$

Q 1) A ring and a solid sphere were released from rest from the same height on enough rough inclined surface. Ratio of their speed when they reach at bottom is $\sqrt{\frac{7}{x}} \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$, then $x$ is $\qquad$

Q 2) Mean free path for an ideal gas is to be observed $20 \mu \mathrm{~m}$ while average speed of molecules of gas is observed to be $600 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$, then frequency of collision is near by

April 3 Shift 2

Q.1 Find out the magnitude of work done in the process ABCD (in kJ) (1 atm. Lit = 101.3 J)

Q.2 Amount of magnesium (Mg) (in mg ) required to liberate 224 mL of $\mathrm{H}_2$ gas at STP, when reacted with HCl

Q.3 Among Sc, Ti, Mn and Co, Calculate the spin only magnetic moment in +2 oxidation state of metal having highest heat of atomisation.

Q.4 Statement-1: Wet cotton cloths made up of cellulose based carbo hydrate Takes comparatively longer time to get dried than wet nylon based clothes
Statement - 2: Intermolecular hydrogen bonding with water molecule is more In nylon based clothes than in cotton clothes.
1. Statement - 1 and Statement - 2 are correct
2. Statement - 1 and Statement - $\mathbf{2}$ are incorrect
3. Statement - 1 is true and Statement - 2 is false
4. Statement - $\mathbf{1}$ is false and Statement - $\mathbf{2}$ is true

Q 5)An equilateral prism is made of a material of refractive index $\sqrt{2}$. Find the angle of incidence for minimum deviation of the light ray.

Q 6) The moment of inertia of a ring of mass $M$ and radius $R$ about an axis passing through the tangential point in the plane of the ring is

Q 7) What is the dimensional formula of $\frac{1}{\mu_0 \varepsilon_0}$ (where $\mu_0$ is permeability and $\varepsilon_0$ is permittivity of free space)

Q 8) Two water drops each of radius of r coalesce to form a bigger drop. If T is the surface tension, surface energy released in this process is

Q 9) A particle moves on a circular path of radius 1 m. Find its displacement when it moves from $\mathrm{A} \rightarrow \mathrm{B} \rightarrow \mathrm{A} \rightarrow \mathrm{B}$. Also its distance are it moves from $\mathrm{A} \rightarrow \mathrm{B} \rightarrow \mathrm{A}$ $\rightarrow \mathrm{B} \rightarrow \mathrm{A}$.

Q 10) A disc of mass $M$ and radius 2 m is hinged, keeping the axis horizontal. If angular acceleration of the disc is $2 \mathrm{rad} / \mathrm{s}^2$. Find moment of inertia

JEE Main April 3 Shift 1 Question Paper

Maths Questions

Q 1. Let A be 3 × 3 matrix such that det ( A ) = 5 . If det ( 3 adj ( 2 A adj ( 2 A ) ) ) = 2 α ⋅ 3 β ⋅ 5 γ , then ( α + β + γ ) is equal to

1. 25

2. 26

3. 27

4. 28

Q 2. The sum of all rational numbers in ( 2 + 3 ) 8 is

1. 18117

2. 18817

3. 17280

4. 1800

Q 3. If the sum ∑ r = 1 9 ( r + 3 r ) ⋅ 9 C r = α ⋅ ( 3 2 ) 9 − β , then the value of ( α + β ) 2 is equal to

1. 9

2. 81

3. 27

4. 36


3 april shift 1

Q.1 Which of the following ion shows spin only magnetic moment of 4.9 B.M.
1) Mn 2 +
2) Cr 2 +
3) Fe 3 +
4) Co 2 +


Q.2 Which of following has highest atomic number

1 Po

2 Pt

3 Pr

4 Pb

Q.3 An ideal gas with an adiabatic exponent 1.5 , initially at 27 ∘ C is compressed adiabatically from 800 cc to 200 C . The final temperature of the gas is
(A) 700 K
(B) 500 K
(C) 250 K
(D) 600 K

Q.4 2 moles each of ethylene glycol and glucose are mixed with 500 g of water. Find the boiling point of solution.
Given : K b = 0.52 K kg mol − 1
1 377.16 K
2 368.84 K
3 376.16 K
4 369.84 K

Q.5 0.5 g of an organic compound gives 1.46 g CO 2 and 0.9 g H 2 O . What is the % of carbon in organic sample.

Physics

Q 1) An ideal gas with an adiabatic exponent 1.5 , initially at 27 ∘ C is compressed adiabatically from 800 cc to 200 cc . The final temperature of the gas is

Q 2) In YDSE, light of intensity of 4 I and 9 I passes through two slits respectively. The difference of maximum and minimum intensity of the interference pattern is

JEE Main April 2 All Shift Question Paper

The details of the april 2 shift 1 and 2 questions are given below

The JEE Main 2025 Session 2 paper was relatively moderate compared to both Session 1 and JEE Main 2024. The overall difficulty level followed the order: Chemistry > Physics > Mathematics. A higher proportion of questions were asked from Class 12 compared to Class 11. Chemistry was notably more difficult than both Mathematics and Physics, with the paper being moderate to tough as the questions did not follow predictable patterns. Meanwhile, Physics and Mathematics contained tricky questions, requiring careful analysis. Additionally, the paper included a few assertion and reason-type questions.

Some questions from both shifts are given below:

April 2 Shift 2 Questions

Chemistry

Q.1 Which of the following statement(s) is correct is/are for the adiabatic process?
A. Molar heat capacity is zero.
B. Molar heat capacity is infinite.
C. Work done on gas is equal to increase in internal energy
D. The increase in temperature results in decrease in internal energy

1 A and C only

2 B and C only

3 A and D only

Q.2 Which does not follow general trends among Halogens
(1) I. E
(2) Electro Affinity
(3) Ionic Radius
(4) Covalent Radius

Q.3 Relation between magnetic sucesptibility and magnetic permeability

Q.4 Which Amino acids is optically inactive
(1) Alanine
(2) Glycine
(3) Valine
(4) Aspartic Acid

Physics

Q.1 What is the units of viscosity, intensity of wave, and pressure gradient

Q.2 The figure shows an infinite plane having uniform charge density σ and a small charged particle having charge q and mass m suspended by a light insulating thread. Find σ if the charge is in equilibrium.

1 2 f 0 m g q
2 ε 0 m g 2 q
3 2 q ε 0 m g
4 2 q ε 0 m g

Q.3 Find the ratio of ( γ = C p C v ) for two gases having degree of freedoms f = 3 and f = 5 .

Q.4 The ratio of the magnetic field to the center of the circular coil to the magnetic field at a distance x from the center of a circular coil

( x R = 3 / 4 )

Q.5 Two point charges q and 9 q are placed at a distance of l from each other. Then the electric field is zero at a

1 Distance l 4 from charge 9 q
2 Distance 3 l 4 from charge q 3 Distance l 3 from charge 9 q
4 Distance l 4 from charge q

Q 1. Total number of terms in an A.P are even. Sum of odd terms is 24 and sum of even terms is 30. Last term exceeds the first term by 212. Find the total number of terms.

Q 2. If the domain of the function f(x)=13x+10−x2+1x+|x| is (a,b) then (1+a)2+b2 is equal to

1. 25
2. 16

3. 24

4. 26

Q 3. If θ∈[−7π6,4π3], then number solutions of 3cosec2θ−2(3−1)cosecθ−4=0, is

Q 4. Find the eccentricity of ellipse in which length of minor axis is equal to onefourth of the distance between foci

1. 4 17
2. 2 17
3. 7 17
4. 8 17

Q 1. Total number of terms in an A.P are even. Sum of odd terms is 24 and sum of even terms is 30. Last term exceeds the first term by 212. Find the total number of terms.

Q 2. If the domain of the function f(x)=13x+10−x2+1x+|x| is (a,b) then (1+a)2+b2 is equal to

1. 25
2. 16

3. 24

4. 26

Q 3. If θ∈[−7π6,4π3], then number solutions of 3cosec2θ−2(3−1)cosecθ−4=0, is

April 2 Shift 1 Questions

Q 1. Find the maximum value of n such that 50 ! is divisible by 3 n .

Q 2. Let P n = α n + β n , P 10 = 123 , P 9 = 76 , P 8 = 47 and P 1 = 1 , the quadratic equation whose roots are 1 α and 1 β .

1. x 2 + x − 1 = 0
2. x 2 − 2 x + 1 = 0
3. x 2 + x − 2 = 0
4. x 2 − x − 2 = 0

Q 3. Number of solutions in [ − 2 π , 2 π ] for equation 2 2 cos 2 ⁡ θ + ( 2 − 6 ) cos ⁡ θ − 3 = 0 .

Q 4. The total number of 10 digits sequences formed by only { 0 , 1 , 2 } where 1 should be used at least 5 times and 2 should be used exactly three times, is

Q 5. Let a 1 , a 2 , a 3 , … . is an A.P. and ∑ k = 1 12 a 2 k − 1 = − 72 5 a 1 and ∑ k = 1 n a k = 0 . Then the value of n is

Q.6 Which of the following statement(s) is correct is/are for the adiabatic process?
A. Molar heat capacity is zero.
B. Molar heat capacity is infinite.
C. Work done on gas is equal to increase in internal energy
D. The increase in temperature results in decrease in internal energy

1 A and C only

2 B and C only

3 A and D only

Q.7 What is the units of viscosity, intensity of wave and pressure gradient

Q.8 Which does not follow general trends among Halogens
(1) I. E
(2) Electro Affinity
(3) Ionic Radius
(4) Covalent Radius

Q.9 The figure shows an infinite plane having uniform charge density σ and a small charged particle having charge q and mass m suspended by a light insulating thread. Find σ if the charge is in equilibrium.

1 2 f 0 m g q
2 ε 0 m g 2 q
3 2 q ε 0 m g
4 2 q ε 0 m g

Q.10 Find the ratio of ( γ = C p C v ) for two gases having degree of freedoms f = 3 and f = 5 .

Q.11 Relation between magnetic sucesptibility and magnetic permeability

JEE Main 2025 April session Question Paper PDF Free Download

JEE Main 2025 2 April Shift 1 Question PaperClick Here
JEE Main 2025 2 April Shift 2 Question PaperClick Here
JEE Main 2025 3 April Shift 1 Question PaperClick Here
JEE Main 2025 3 April Shift 2 Question PaperClick here
JEE Main 2025 4 April Shift 1 Question PaperClick Here
JEE Main 2025 4 Shift 2 Question PaperClick Here
JEE Main 2025 7 April Shift 1 Question PaperClick Here
JEE Main 2025 7 April Shift 2 Question PaperClick Here
JEE Main 2025 8 April Shift 2 Question paperClick Here
JEE Main 2025 College Predictor
Know your college admission chances in NITs, IIITs and CFTIs, many States/ Institutes based on your JEE Main rank by using JEE Main 2025 College Predictor.
Use Now


JEE Main 2025 Question Paper PDF Free Download

For those students who prefer digital utility, they can download the JEE Main 2025 Question Paper PDF once it gets released after the exam from the official website. Downloading the question paper in PDF file format is simple and allows access to the paper to practice offline as well as the option to customize by annotating the paper, noting the key takeaways, and tracking progress over some time.

JEE Main 2025 22 January Shift 1 Question PaperClick Here
JEE Main 2025 22 January Shift 2 Question PaperClick Here
JEE Main 2025 23 January Shift 1 Question PaperClick Here
JEE Main 2025 23 January Shift 2 Question PaperClick here
JEE Main 2025 24 January Shift 1 Question PaperClick Here
JEE Main 2025 24 January Shift 2 Question PaperClick Here
JEE Main 2025 28 January Shift 1 Question paperClick Here
JEE Main 2025 28 January Shift 2 Question paperClick Here
JEE main 2025 29 January Shift 1 Question paperClick Here
JEE main 2025 29 January Shift 2 Question paperClick Here
Amrita Vishwa Vidyapeetham | B.Tech Admissions 2025

Recognized as Institute of Eminence by Govt. of India | NAAC ‘A++’ Grade | Upto 75% Scholarships | Applications accepted on through JEE

Jain University B.Tech Admissions 2025

100% Placement Record | Highest CTC 54 LPA | NAAC A++ Accredited | Ranked #65 in India by NIRF Ranking 2024 | JEE & JET Scores Accepted

Memory Based Questions JEE Main 2025 Exam January Session

Q. For [ NiCl 4 ] − 2 What is the charge on metal and shape of complex respectively?
(1) +2 , tetrahedral
(2) +2 , square planar
(3) +4 , tetrahedral
(4) +4, square planar

Q. Solid sphere of mass M , radius R exerts force F on a point mass. Now a concentric spherical mass M 7 is removed. What is new force?
(1) F 7
(2) 6 7 F
(3) 5 F 7
(4) 3 F 7

Q. Form a 5 letter word is to be made using any distinct 5 alphabets such that middle alphabet is M and letter should be in increasing order.

Q. Electrolysis of which compound Give H 2 S 2 O 3
a) Electrolysis of Conc. Na 2 SO 4
b) Electrolysis of Dil. Na 2 SO 4
c) Électrolysis of Conc. H 2 SO 4
d) Electrolysis of Dil. H 2 SO 4

Q. Compare boiling point of given solutions
(i) 10 − 4 . NaCl
(i) 10 − 3 NaCl
(iii) 10 − 2 NaCl
(iv) 10 − 4 urea
(1) I > II > III > N
(2) III > II > I > N
(3) il > I > ili > N
(4) III > II > II > N

Q. Let the triangle PQR be the image of the triangle with vertices ( 1 , 3 ) , ( 3 , 1 ) ( 2 , 4 ) in the line x + 2 y = 2 . if the centroid of △ PQR is the point ( α , β ) then 15 ( α − β ) is equation

Q. Find the Radius of Curvature of the Common surface of two bubble ( R 1 > R 2 )

screenshot-62

a) R = R 1 R 2 R 1 + R 2
b) R = 2 R 1 R 2 R 1 − R 2
c) R = R 1 R 2 R 1 − R 2
d) R = R 1 R 2 R 1 − R 2

Q. A Parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 40 μ F is connected to a 100V power supply now the intermediate space between the plates is filled with a drelectric material of dielectric constant k = 2 . due to the introductiuon dielectric the extra charge and the change in electrostatic energy in the capacitor respectively or

(a) 2 mc and 0.4 J
(b) 2 mc and 0.2 J
(c) 4 mc and 0.2 J
(d) 8 mc and 2.J

Q. Given a 1 , a 2 , a 3 … are in GP such that a 1 a 5 = 28 and a 2 + a 4 = 29 find a 6 ?

Q. The correct order of electronegativity

1. F > Cl > Br > I

2. Cl > F > Br > I

3. F > Cl > I > Br

4. Br > F > I > Cl

Q. which of the following lanthanide ion as 7 e − in the outer moss shell
a) Eu + 3
3) G d + 3
c) Eu + 2
d) G d + 2

Memory Based Questions of Jan 22 Shift 2 JEE Main 2025 Exam

22 Jan Shift 2

Q. if 2 x 2 + ( cos ⁡ θ ) x − 1 = 0 θ ∈ [ 0 , 2 π ] has roots α + β . Then the sum of maximum and minimum value of α 4 + β 4 is

4) 25 / 16
b) 9 / 16
c) 41 / 16
d) 8 / 17

Q. Which of the following doesn't show disproportionation reaction

(1) ClO −

(2) ClO 2 −

(3) ClO 3 −

(4) ClO 4 −

Q. Density of 3M NaOH is 1.25 g/mol. Molarity of the solution is _____.

Q. A ball of mass 100 grams throw m at speed 20 m / s with angle 60 percent degree with horizontal. Now tell the decrease in kinetic energy from point of throwing to the ball when it reaches to Max height basically a projectile question

Q. Which of the following has "two secondary hydrogens"

(1) 2,2,3,3-Dimethyl Pentane
(2) 2,2,4,4-Dimethyl Heptane
(3) 4- Ethyl-2,2 Di methyl hexane
(4) None of these

Q. If θ ∈ ( 0 , 2 π ] satisfying the system of equations 2 sin 2 ⁡ θ = cos ⁡ 2 θ and 2 cos 2 ⁡ θ = 3 sin ⁡ θ . Then the sum of all real values of θ is

1 3 π 2 2 π 3 π 2 4 5 π 6

Q. Arrange according to CFSE.
(i) [ Co ( NH 3 ) 4 ] 2 +
(ii) [ Co ( NH 3 ) 6 ] 3 +
(iii) [ Co ( NH 3 ) 6 ] 2 +
(iv) [ Co ( en ) 3 ] 3 +

1) (iv) > (ii) > (iii) ) > ( (i)

2) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)

3) (i) > (iii) ) > (ii) > (iv)

4) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

Q. Find the correct dimensional formula for the capacitance in terms of M, L, T and C where they stand for unit of mass, length, time and charge.

Memory Based Questions of Jan 23 Shift 1 JEE Main 2025 Exam

Q.1 Which of the following element doesn't lie on same period
(a) Osmium
(b) Iridium
(c) Palladium
(d) Platinum

Q.2

Which of the following pair of ions are same coloured?

1 Ti 4 + , V 3 + 2 Cr 2 + , Cu 2 + 3 Cr 3 + , Ni 2 + 4 Mn 3 + , Fe 2 +
Q.3 Which of the following react with Hinsberg reagent?
(A) Aniline
(B) N , N -Dimethyl aniline
(C) Methyl amine
(D) C 6 H 5 NHC 6 H 5
. A only
. A and C only
. A , C and D
. A and B only

Q.4

CH 3 CH 2 CH = 0 → Excess HCHO [ A ]


Major product [ A ] will be:

Q.5

Statement 1: Fructose can give tollens test even though it does not have aldehyde group
Statement 2: When reacted with base fructose can undergo rearrangement to produce aldehyde group
(1) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and the Statement 2 is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
(4) If the Statement 1 and Statement 2 both are false.


How to download the JEE Main 2025 Question Paper With Solutions?

Here are the steps to download the JEE Mains 2025 question paper with solutions once it gets released:

  • Go to the official website.

  • Register using your email ID.

  • The JEE question paper pdf download link will be sent to the registered email ID.

  • Simply download it and view the file.

How Preparing for JEE Main 2025 Question Paper Assists in Exam Preparation

  1. Time Management: Solving the test papers will enable students to get used to the pressure of time that they will encounter on the day of the examination. They will know and manage the time they have taken to solve every section. They will thus try to expedite the process of decision-making.

  1. Identifying Strengths and Weaknesses: It is also through solving the JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Solutions that the student gets to know which are his or her strong subjects and where more practice is needed.

  1. Getting Acquainted with Exam Pattern: The exam pattern can change from year to year, and thus solving the previous years' question papers, such as the JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Answers, helps a student to get accustomed to any change in the pattern.

  2. Boosting Confidence: More practice papers will only give students the sense of being familiar and confident about solving various types of questions that may arise in the actual examination.


Exam Pattern of JEE Main 2025

Mode of Examination

Computer-based test (CBT) for all papers.

Total Duration

3 hours (180 minutes)

Sections

3 Sections – Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics

Total Number of Questions

75 questions (25 questions from each subject)

Question Type

- Objective-type questions (Multiple Choice Questions - MCQs)

- Numerical Answer Type (NAT) questions

Distribution of Questions

- Physics: 25 Questions (MCQs + NAT)

- Chemistry: 25 Questions (MCQs + NAT)

- Mathematics: 25 Questions (MCQs + NAT)

Marking Scheme

- MCQs: +4 marks for correct answer, -1 mark for incorrect answer.

- NAT: +4 marks for correct answer, no negative marking for wrong answers.

Total Marks

300 Marks (Each section will carry 100 marks)

Sections Breakdown

- Physics: 20 MCQs + 5 NATs

- Chemistry: 20 MCQs + 5 NATs

- Mathematics: 20 MCQs + 5 NATs

Mode of Answering

- For MCQs: Select one correct option.

- For NAT: Type the correct numerical answer.



JEE Main 2026JEE Main 2026JEE Main 2026

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. When will I be able to check the JEE Main 2025 Question Paper?

The JEE Main 2025 Question Paper will be available after the exam is conducted.

2. From where to download JEE Main 2025 Question Paper PDF Free?

The JEE Main 2025 Question Paper PDF can be downloaded from the official website after the exam is held.

3. What is the marking structure for the JEE Main 2025 exam?

For MCQs, +4 marks will be there for correct answers and -1 for incorrect answers. For NAT, +4 marks with no negative marking.

Articles

Upcoming Engineering Exams

Application Date:19 December,2024 - 31 May,2025

Application Date:06 March,2025 - 31 May,2025

Application Date:10 March,2025 - 30 May,2025

View All Engineering Exams

Certifications By Top Providers

Explore Top Universities Across Globe

Questions related to JEE Main

Have a question related to JEE Main ?

HEY THERE!!

With 967 IPE marks and 90 percentile in JEE Mains, you have a very high probability of getting a CSE core seat in SASTRA University through the usual merit-based admission process.

Admission Process at SASTRA

  1. Stream 1 (70% seats): It is conducted on a combined score: 75% weightage to your Class 12 (IPE) marks and 25% weightage to your JEE Main score.
  2. Stream 2 (30% seats): Only on Class 12 (IPE) marks.

Your Chances

  • Recent times student reports and expert answers indicate that above 900 IPE marks and a good JEE Main percentile (generally above 85–90) are generally sufficient to obtain a CSE seat in SASTRA.
  • SASTRA's CSE cutoff is likely to be tough, but your 967/1000 in IPE and 90 percentile in JEE Main are strong for the CSE core, especially in Stream 1.
  • Last year's cutoff every year is based on the set of candidates, but your profile is on or above the average admitted student profile for CSE.

Conclusion:

With your marks, you have a strong possibility of securing a CSE core seat at SASTRA University, though allotment will finally be made depending on the competition that year and the availability of seats. Attempt to apply through both streams to maximize chances.

Dear candidate,

You have 93 percentile in AEEE and 92.9 percentile in JEE Main, so there is a strong chance of getting admission in several branches such as :

  1. ECE
  2. EEE
  3. CSE in Amrita Vishwa Vidyapeetham, especially under Group B (higher fee).

Admission for CSE at coimbatore is competitive but there is a chance if you are from home state.

All the best!


HEY THERE!!!

On your marks-56% in JEE Main and 88% in CBSE Board (Tamil Nadu)-you are eligible to apply for the B.Tech. in Electronics Engineering (VLSI Design and Technology) at SASTRA University, Thanjavur, but a seat for the course will be allotted based on the combined merit and competition.

VLSI Course Prospects

  1. Admission is merit-based; there is no cut-off marks-it depends on the pool of candidates each year.
  2. For competitive streams like VLSI, the combined marks in boards are typically higher.
  3. With 88% boards, you have a good opportunity, especially through Stream 2 (on the basis of marks in boards only).
  4. In case you have a poor JEE percentile, you have a better chance through Stream 2.

Summary

You are eligible and stand a good chance for VLSI course in SASTRA Thanjavur, especially under Stream 2 with your good board marks. Admission is not guaranteed but depends on the merit list and competition annually. Apply early and monitor the official releases for counselling and rank lists.

HEY THERE!!!

With 978/1000 in Class 12th (98%) and 80.9 percentile in JEE Mains, you have a very high chance of getting Computer Science Engineering (CSE) with specialization at SASTRA University, Thanjavur.

How SASTRA Admission Works

  1. Stream 1: 70% of seats are filled based on a combined merit score (75% weightage to Class 12 marks + 25% weightage to JEE Main percentile).
  2. Stream 2: 30% of seats are filled based solely on Class 12 marks

Your Chances

  • Your Class 12 mark (978/1000) is good and will place you high in the merit list.
  • Your JEE Main percentile (80.9) is average and combined with your excellent board marks puts your overall merit score in competition.
  • Recent trends suggest that 95%+ board students and 75–85 percentile students in JEE Main have achieved CSE and its specializations at SASTRA, especially during the later rounds or through Stream 2

Conclusion

You are likely to receive CSE with specialization from SASTRA University through Stream 1 or Stream 2 because of your good board marks and average JEE Main percentile. Final allotment depends on competition and availability of seats, but your profile is very competitive to receive CSE and its specializations in SASTRA.

Hii,

A few key documents are required for JEE. Your admit card, which grants you entry to the exam room, comes first. To prove who you are, you also need identification, such as your school ID or Aadhar card. To prove your age, your birth certificate is required.

Your class 12 grade report is required as documentation of your education. A category certificate is necessary if you fall under one of the reserved categories, such as SC, ST, or OBC. Keep these with you on test day.

View All
Are previous year questions repeated in JEE Mains?
How to crack JEE Main in 1st attempt?
When will JEE Main admit card come?
How to check JEE Main Exam Centre?
How to check JEE Main Result?
How to make jee main admit card correction?
How to download jee main admit card?
How to download JEE Main admit card without password?
What not to carry to JEE Main exam hall?
What to carry to the exam hall of JEE Main 2018?
Flight Attendant

A flight attendant ensures passenger safety and comfort during flights. Key duties include conducting safety checks, assisting passengers, serving food and drinks, and managing emergencies. They must be well-trained in safety procedures and customer service. A high school diploma is typically required, followed by rigorous training to qualify for the role.

3 Jobs Available
Aerospace Engineer

An aerospace engineer designs, develops, tests, and maintains aircraft, spacecraft, and related systems. They apply physics and engineering principles to improve aerospace technologies, often working in aviation, defence, or space sectors. Key tasks include designing components, conducting tests, and performing research. A bachelor’s degree is essential, with higher roles requiring advanced study. The role demands analytical skills, technical knowledge, precision, and effective communication.

2 Jobs Available
Flight Engineer

A career in the aviation industry always sounds exciting. But, there is no scope for the slightest error as it may cost the lives of many people. A Flight Engineer role comes with the responsibility of monitoring the aircraft engine and control systems while in flight. Whenever the aircraft is away from the home station, he or she is required to perform pre-flight and post-flight inspections

2 Jobs Available
Aircrew officer

An Aircrew Officer operates and navigates aircraft, ensuring safe flights and compliance with aviation regulations. Key duties include managing flight systems, conducting pre- and post-flight checks, and adhering to safety standards. The role typically requires working five days a week, with around 120 flight hours monthly. Employment may be contractual or permanent, depending on the airline.

2 Jobs Available
Air Hostess

An air hostess, or flight attendant, ensures passenger safety and comfort during flights. Responsibilities include safety demonstrations, serving meals, managing the cabin, handling emergencies, and post-flight reporting. The role demands strong communication skills, a calm demeanour, and a service-oriented attitude. It offers opportunities to travel and work in the dynamic aviation and hospitality industry.

2 Jobs Available
Aeronautical Engineer

An aeronautical engineer designs, develops, tests, and maintains aircraft and related systems. They work on components like engines and wings, ensuring performance, safety, and efficiency. The role involves simulations, flight testing, research, and technological innovation to improve fuel efficiency and reduce noise. Aeronautical engineers collaborate with teams in aerospace companies, government agencies, or research institutions, requiring strong skills in physics, mathematics, and engineering principles.

2 Jobs Available
Safety Manager

A Safety Manager is a professional responsible for employee’s safety at work. He or she plans, implements and oversees the company’s employee safety. A Safety Manager ensures compliance and adherence to Occupational Health and Safety (OHS) guidelines.

2 Jobs Available
Airline Pilot

An airline pilot operates aircraft to transport passengers and cargo safely. Responsibilities include pre-flight planning, in-flight operations, team collaboration, and post-flight duties. Pilots work in varying schedules and environments, often with overnight layovers. The demand for airline pilots is expected to grow, driven by retirements and industry expansion. The role requires specialized training and adaptability.

1 Jobs Available
Welding Engineer

Welding Engineer Job Description: A Welding Engineer work involves managing welding projects and supervising welding teams. He or she is responsible for reviewing welding procedures, processes and documentation. A career as Welding Engineer involves conducting failure analyses and causes on welding issues. 

5 Jobs Available
Transportation Planner

A career as Transportation Planner requires technical application of science and technology in engineering, particularly the concepts, equipment and technologies involved in the production of products and services. In fields like land use, infrastructure review, ecological standards and street design, he or she considers issues of health, environment and performance. A Transportation Planner assigns resources for implementing and designing programmes. He or she is responsible for assessing needs, preparing plans and forecasts and compliance with regulations.

3 Jobs Available
Environmental Engineer

Individuals who opt for a career as an environmental engineer are construction professionals who utilise the skills and knowledge of biology, soil science, chemistry and the concept of engineering to design and develop projects that serve as solutions to various environmental problems. 

2 Jobs Available
Safety Manager

A Safety Manager is a professional responsible for employee’s safety at work. He or she plans, implements and oversees the company’s employee safety. A Safety Manager ensures compliance and adherence to Occupational Health and Safety (OHS) guidelines.

2 Jobs Available
Conservation Architect

A Conservation Architect is a professional responsible for conserving and restoring buildings or monuments having a historic value. He or she applies techniques to document and stabilise the object’s state without any further damage. A Conservation Architect restores the monuments and heritage buildings to bring them back to their original state.

2 Jobs Available
Structural Engineer

A Structural Engineer designs buildings, bridges, and other related structures. He or she analyzes the structures and makes sure the structures are strong enough to be used by the people. A career as a Structural Engineer requires working in the construction process. It comes under the civil engineering discipline. A Structure Engineer creates structural models with the help of computer-aided design software. 

2 Jobs Available
Highway Engineer

Highway Engineer Job Description: A Highway Engineer is a civil engineer who specialises in planning and building thousands of miles of roads that support connectivity and allow transportation across the country. He or she ensures that traffic management schemes are effectively planned concerning economic sustainability and successful implementation.

2 Jobs Available
Field Surveyor

Are you searching for a Field Surveyor Job Description? A Field Surveyor is a professional responsible for conducting field surveys for various places or geographical conditions. He or she collects the required data and information as per the instructions given by senior officials. 

2 Jobs Available
Geothermal Engineer

Individuals who opt for a career as geothermal engineers are the professionals involved in the processing of geothermal energy. The responsibilities of geothermal engineers may vary depending on the workplace location. Those who work in fields design facilities to process and distribute geothermal energy. They oversee the functioning of machinery used in the field.

3 Jobs Available
Geologist

A geologist attempts to comprehend the historical backdrop of the planet we live on, all the more likely to anticipate the future and clarify current events. He or she analyses the components, deployments, results, physical characteristics, and past of the planet. A geologist examines the landforms and landscapes of the earth in relation to the geology, climatic, and human processes that have shaped them. 

A geologist studies earth procedures, for example, seismic tremors, avalanches, floods, and volcanic eruptions to review land and draw up safe structure plans. When he or she researches earth materials, explores metals and minerals, yet in addition search for oil, petroleum gas, water, and strategies to extricate these. 

2 Jobs Available
Energy Performance Engineer

Energy efficiency engineering is a broad field of engineering which deals with energy efficiency, energy services, facility management, plant engineering, and sustainable energy resources. Energy efficiency engineering is one of the most recent engineering disciplines to emerge. The field combines the knowledge and understanding of physics, chemistry, and mathematics, with economic and environmental engineering practices. The main job of individuals who opt for a career as an energy performance engineer is to find the most efficient and sustainable path to operate buildings and manufacturing processes. 

Individuals who opt for a career as energy performance engineers apply their understanding and knowledge to increase efficiency and further develop renewable sources of energy. The energy efficiency engineers also examine the use of energy in those procedures and suggest the ways in which systems can be improved.

2 Jobs Available
Petroleum Engineer

A career as a Petroleum engineer is concerned with activities related to producing petroleum. These products can be in the form of either crude oil or natural gas. Petroleum engineering also requires the exploration and refinement of petroleum resources. Therefore, a career as a petroleum engineer comes up with oil and gas onshore jobs. There are also desk jobs in the petroleum industry. In layman’s terms, a petroleum engineer is a person who finds the best way to drill and extract oil from oil wells. Individuals who opt for a career as petroleum engineer also tries to find new ways to extract oil in an efficient manner.

2 Jobs Available
Transportation Planner

A career as Transportation Planner requires technical application of science and technology in engineering, particularly the concepts, equipment and technologies involved in the production of products and services. In fields like land use, infrastructure review, ecological standards and street design, he or she considers issues of health, environment and performance. A Transportation Planner assigns resources for implementing and designing programmes. He or she is responsible for assessing needs, preparing plans and forecasts and compliance with regulations.

3 Jobs Available
Civil Engineer

A career as a civil engineer is of great importance for the infrastructural growth of the country. It is one of the most popular professions and there is great professional as well as personal growth in this civil engineering career path. There is job satisfaction in this civil engineering career path, but it also comes with a lot of stress, as there are multiple projects that need to be handled and have to be completed on time. Students should pursue physics, chemistry and mathematics in their 10+2 to become civil engineers. 

2 Jobs Available
Transportation Engineer

A career as a Transportation Engineer is someone who takes care of people's safety. He or she is responsible for designing, planning and constructing a safe and secure transportation system. The transportation sector has seen a huge transformation and is growing day by day and improving every day. 

As a Transport Engineer, he or she needs to solve complex problems such as accidents, costs, traffic flow, and statistics. A Transport Engineer also collaborates for projects with some other companies. 

1 Jobs Available
Loco Pilot

A Loco Pilot operates trains, ensuring safe and timely transport of passengers or goods. Starting as an Assistant Loco Pilot, one can progress to senior roles with experience. The job demands technical knowledge, focus, and adherence to safety protocols. It involves coordination with train staff and may require working long hours under pressure.

2 Jobs Available
Back to top