VIT - VITEEE 2025
National level exam conducted by VIT University, Vellore | Ranked #11 by NIRF for Engg. | NAAC A++ Accredited | Last Date to Apply: 7th April | NO Further Extensions!
JEE Main 2025 Question Paper - The Joint Entrance Examination or JEE Main is one of the exams that everyone is talking about in India. According to reports, it is always one of the exams that students compete for just to gain admission into some of the best colleges in India, usually the IITs and the NITs. The first shift of the JEE Main 2025 exam is already over and students are eager to know the structure, pattern, and type of questions that the exam will present to them. Download the JEE Main 2025 Question paper of shifts that are already over from below.
JEE Main Questions: April 4: Shift 1 | Shift-2 | April 3: Shift 1 | Shift 2| April 2: Shift 1 | Shift-2 | Overall Analysis
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Well, this will help students to prepare for the examination in a very strategic way. So, we have some details and tips for better preparation. Download the 2025 question paper 22nd, 23rd, 24th and 28th and 29th Jan paper from below! JEE Main answer key is released. The April 2 All shift and April 3 Shift 1 and 2 as well 4 April shift 1 and 2 just got over and the details are available below. For counselling you can join us online and offline as well via register on below link.
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By checking the JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Answers students can gauge their performance and see whether they are on track with their preparation. Knowing the correct answers will clear doubts while reinforcing important concepts. It is important to forget only the answers, but also try to know the methods of how these answers come by.
National level exam conducted by VIT University, Vellore | Ranked #11 by NIRF for Engg. | NAAC A++ Accredited | Last Date to Apply: 7th April | NO Further Extensions!
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The JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Answers will be available on this page after it is officially released on the website. These resources can help in the cross-checking of answers and help to understand different approaches to problem-solving.
Watch live analysis 4 April Shift 1 and 2
April 4 Shift 2
Q.1 Maximum IE and minimum IE of group 13 elements
$1 \quad B, \ln$
$2 \quad B, TI$
$3 \quad \mathrm{Al}, \mathrm{In}$
$4 \quad\mathrm{Al}, \mathrm{Tl}$
Q.2 Total number of electrons in chromium $(Z=24)$ for which the value of azimuthal quantum number $(\mathrm{I})$ is 1 and 2
Q 1. $\cot ^{-1}\left(\frac{7}{4}\right)+\cot ^{-1}\left(\frac{19}{4}\right)+\cot ^{-1}\left(\frac{39}{4}\right)+\cdots \infty$
$\begin{aligned} 1) & \cot ^{-1}(2) \\ 2)& \cot ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) \\ 3)& \cot ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{3}\right) \\ 4) & \cot ^{-1}(3)\end{aligned}$
Q 2. $\sum_{k=1}^n\left(\alpha^k+\frac{1}{\alpha^k}\right)^2=20, \alpha$ is one of the root of $x^2+x+1=0$ then $n=$ ?
Q 3. Let $L_1: \frac{x-1}{3}=\frac{y}{4}=\frac{z}{5}$ and $L_2: \frac{x-p}{2}=\frac{y}{3}=\frac{z}{4}$. If the shortest distance between $L_1$ and $L_2$ is $\frac{1}{\sqrt{6}}$. Then possible value of $p$ is
Q 1) A disc is performing pure rolling if speed of top point is $8 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$. Find speed of point B.
April 4 Shift 1
Q.1 In the following, the number of paramagnetic molecules are : $\mathrm{O}_2, \mathrm{~N}_2, \mathrm{~F}_2, \mathrm{~B}_2, \mathrm{Cl}_2$
Q.2 Which of the following is the ratio of $5^{\text {th }}$ Bohr orbit $\left(r_5\right)$ of $\mathrm{He}^{+} \& \mathrm{Li}^{2+}$ ?
1) $\frac{2}{3}$
2) $\frac{3}{2}$
3) $\frac{9}{4}$
4) $\frac{4}{9}$
Q 1. Solve $\int_{-1}^1 \frac{1+2 x}{e^{-x}+e x} d x$.
1) $2\left(\tan ^{-1} e-\frac{\pi}{4}\right)$
2) $2\left(\tan ^{-1} e-\frac{\pi}{3}\right)$
3) $2\left(\tan ^{-1} e-\frac{\pi}{2}\right)$
4) $2\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-\tan ^{-1} \pi\right)$
Q 2. If the equation of an ellipse $E$ is $\frac{x^2}{9}+\frac{y^2}{16}=1$, then the length of latus rectum of $E$ is
$\begin{aligned} 1) & \frac{32}{5} \\ 2) & \frac{9}{2} \\ 3) & \frac{16}{3} \\ 4) & \frac{9}{5}\end{aligned}$
Q 1) A ring and a solid sphere were released from rest from the same height on enough rough inclined surface. Ratio of their speed when they reach at bottom is $\sqrt{\frac{7}{x}} \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$, then $x$ is $\qquad$
Q 2) Mean free path for an ideal gas is to be observed $20 \mu \mathrm{~m}$ while average speed of molecules of gas is observed to be $600 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$, then frequency of collision is near by
April 3 Shift 2
Q.1 Find out the magnitude of work done in the process ABCD (in kJ) (1 atm. Lit = 101.3 J)
Q.2 Amount of magnesium (Mg) (in mg ) required to liberate 224 mL of $\mathrm{H}_2$ gas at STP, when reacted with HCl
Q.3 Among Sc, Ti, Mn and Co, Calculate the spin only magnetic moment in +2 oxidation state of metal having highest heat of atomisation.
Q.4 Statement-1: Wet cotton cloths made up of cellulose based carbo hydrate Takes comparatively longer time to get dried than wet nylon based clothes
Statement - 2: Intermolecular hydrogen bonding with water molecule is more In nylon based clothes than in cotton clothes.
1. Statement - 1 and Statement - 2 are correct
2. Statement - 1 and Statement - $\mathbf{2}$ are incorrect
3. Statement - 1 is true and Statement - 2 is false
4. Statement - $\mathbf{1}$ is false and Statement - $\mathbf{2}$ is true
Q 5)An equilateral prism is made of a material of refractive index $\sqrt{2}$. Find the angle of incidence for minimum deviation of the light ray.
Q 6) The moment of inertia of a ring of mass $M$ and radius $R$ about an axis passing through the tangential point in the plane of the ring is
Q 7) What is the dimensional formula of $\frac{1}{\mu_0 \varepsilon_0}$ (where $\mu_0$ is permeability and $\varepsilon_0$ is permittivity of free space)
Q 8) Two water drops each of radius of r coalesce to form a bigger drop. If T is the surface tension, surface energy released in this process is
Q 9) A particle moves on a circular path of radius 1 m. Find its displacement when it moves from $\mathrm{A} \rightarrow \mathrm{B} \rightarrow \mathrm{A} \rightarrow \mathrm{B}$. Also its distance are it moves from $\mathrm{A} \rightarrow \mathrm{B} \rightarrow \mathrm{A}$ $\rightarrow \mathrm{B} \rightarrow \mathrm{A}$.
Q 10) A disc of mass $M$ and radius 2 m is hinged, keeping the axis horizontal. If angular acceleration of the disc is $2 \mathrm{rad} / \mathrm{s}^2$. Find moment of inertia
Maths Questions
Q 1. Let A be 3 × 3 matrix such that det ( A ) = 5 . If det ( 3 adj ( 2 A adj ( 2 A ) ) ) = 2 α ⋅ 3 β ⋅ 5 γ , then ( α + β + γ ) is equal to
1. 25
2. 26
3. 27
4. 28
Q 2. The sum of all rational numbers in ( 2 + 3 ) 8 is
1. 18117
2. 18817
3. 17280
4. 1800
Q 3. If the sum ∑ r = 1 9 ( r + 3 r ) ⋅ 9 C r = α ⋅ ( 3 2 ) 9 − β , then the value of ( α + β ) 2 is equal to
1. 9
2. 81
3. 27
4. 36
3 april shift 1
Q.1 Which of the following ion shows spin only magnetic moment of 4.9 B.M.
1) Mn 2 +
2) Cr 2 +
3) Fe 3 +
4) Co 2 +
Q.2 Which of following has highest atomic number
1 Po
2 Pt
3 Pr
4 Pb
Q.3 An ideal gas with an adiabatic exponent 1.5 , initially at 27 ∘ C is compressed adiabatically from 800 cc to 200 C . The final temperature of the gas is
(A) 700 K
(B) 500 K
(C) 250 K
(D) 600 K
Q.4 2 moles each of ethylene glycol and glucose are mixed with 500 g of water. Find the boiling point of solution.
Given : K b = 0.52 K kg mol − 1
1 377.16 K
2 368.84 K
3 376.16 K
4 369.84 K
Q.5 0.5 g of an organic compound gives 1.46 g CO 2 and 0.9 g H 2 O . What is the % of carbon in organic sample.
Physics
Q 1) An ideal gas with an adiabatic exponent 1.5 , initially at 27 ∘ C is compressed adiabatically from 800 cc to 200 cc . The final temperature of the gas is
Q 2) In YDSE, light of intensity of 4 I and 9 I passes through two slits respectively. The difference of maximum and minimum intensity of the interference pattern is
The details of the april 2 shift 1 and 2 questions are given below
The JEE Main 2025 Session 2 paper was relatively moderate compared to both Session 1 and JEE Main 2024. The overall difficulty level followed the order: Chemistry > Physics > Mathematics. A higher proportion of questions were asked from Class 12 compared to Class 11. Chemistry was notably more difficult than both Mathematics and Physics, with the paper being moderate to tough as the questions did not follow predictable patterns. Meanwhile, Physics and Mathematics contained tricky questions, requiring careful analysis. Additionally, the paper included a few assertion and reason-type questions.
Some questions from both shifts are given below:
Chemistry
Q.1 Which of the following statement(s) is correct is/are for the adiabatic process?
A. Molar heat capacity is zero.
B. Molar heat capacity is infinite.
C. Work done on gas is equal to increase in internal energy
D. The increase in temperature results in decrease in internal energy
1 A and C only
2 B and C only
3 A and D only
Q.2 Which does not follow general trends among Halogens
(1) I. E
(2) Electro Affinity
(3) Ionic Radius
(4) Covalent Radius
Q.3 Relation between magnetic sucesptibility and magnetic permeability
Q.4 Which Amino acids is optically inactive
(1) Alanine
(2) Glycine
(3) Valine
(4) Aspartic Acid
Physics
Q.1 What is the units of viscosity, intensity of wave, and pressure gradient
Q.2 The figure shows an infinite plane having uniform charge density σ and a small charged particle having charge q and mass m suspended by a light insulating thread. Find σ if the charge is in equilibrium.
1 2 f 0 m g q
2 ε 0 m g 2 q
3 2 q ε 0 m g
4 2 q ε 0 m g
Q.3 Find the ratio of ( γ = C p C v ) for two gases having degree of freedoms f = 3 and f = 5 .
Q.4 The ratio of the magnetic field to the center of the circular coil to the magnetic field at a distance x from the center of a circular coil
( x R = 3 / 4 )
Q.5 Two point charges q and 9 q are placed at a distance of l from each other. Then the electric field is zero at a
1 Distance l 4 from charge 9 q
2 Distance 3 l 4 from charge q 3 Distance l 3 from charge 9 q
4 Distance l 4 from charge q
Q 1. Total number of terms in an A.P are even. Sum of odd terms is 24 and sum of even terms is 30. Last term exceeds the first term by 212. Find the total number of terms.
Q 2. If the domain of the function f(x)=13x+10−x2+1x+|x| is (a,b) then (1+a)2+b2 is equal to
1. 25
2. 16
3. 24
4. 26
Q 3. If θ∈[−7π6,4π3], then number solutions of 3cosec2θ−2(3−1)cosecθ−4=0, is
Q 4. Find the eccentricity of ellipse in which length of minor axis is equal to onefourth of the distance between foci
1. 4 17
2. 2 17
3. 7 17
4. 8 17
Q 1. Total number of terms in an A.P are even. Sum of odd terms is 24 and sum of even terms is 30. Last term exceeds the first term by 212. Find the total number of terms.
Q 2. If the domain of the function f(x)=13x+10−x2+1x+|x| is (a,b) then (1+a)2+b2 is equal to
1. 25
2. 16
3. 24
4. 26
Q 3. If θ∈[−7π6,4π3], then number solutions of 3cosec2θ−2(3−1)cosecθ−4=0, is
Q 1. Find the maximum value of n such that 50 ! is divisible by 3 n .
Q 2. Let P n = α n + β n , P 10 = 123 , P 9 = 76 , P 8 = 47 and P 1 = 1 , the quadratic equation whose roots are 1 α and 1 β .
1. x 2 + x − 1 = 0
2. x 2 − 2 x + 1 = 0
3. x 2 + x − 2 = 0
4. x 2 − x − 2 = 0
Q 3. Number of solutions in [ − 2 π , 2 π ] for equation 2 2 cos 2 θ + ( 2 − 6 ) cos θ − 3 = 0 .
Q 4. The total number of 10 digits sequences formed by only { 0 , 1 , 2 } where 1 should be used at least 5 times and 2 should be used exactly three times, is
Q 5. Let a 1 , a 2 , a 3 , … . is an A.P. and ∑ k = 1 12 a 2 k − 1 = − 72 5 a 1 and ∑ k = 1 n a k = 0 . Then the value of n is
Q.6 Which of the following statement(s) is correct is/are for the adiabatic process?
A. Molar heat capacity is zero.
B. Molar heat capacity is infinite.
C. Work done on gas is equal to increase in internal energy
D. The increase in temperature results in decrease in internal energy
1 A and C only
2 B and C only
3 A and D only
Q.7 What is the units of viscosity, intensity of wave and pressure gradient
Q.8 Which does not follow general trends among Halogens
(1) I. E
(2) Electro Affinity
(3) Ionic Radius
(4) Covalent Radius
Q.9 The figure shows an infinite plane having uniform charge density σ and a small charged particle having charge q and mass m suspended by a light insulating thread. Find σ if the charge is in equilibrium.
1 2 f 0 m g q
2 ε 0 m g 2 q
3 2 q ε 0 m g
4 2 q ε 0 m g
Q.10 Find the ratio of ( γ = C p C v ) for two gases having degree of freedoms f = 3 and f = 5 .
Q.11 Relation between magnetic sucesptibility and magnetic permeability
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Q. For [ NiCl 4 ] − 2 What is the charge on metal and shape of complex respectively?
(1) +2 , tetrahedral
(2) +2 , square planar
(3) +4 , tetrahedral
(4) +4, square planar
Q. Solid sphere of mass M , radius R exerts force F on a point mass. Now a concentric spherical mass M 7 is removed. What is new force?
(1) F 7
(2) 6 7 F
(3) 5 F 7
(4) 3 F 7
Q. Form a 5 letter word is to be made using any distinct 5 alphabets such that middle alphabet is M and letter should be in increasing order.
Q. Electrolysis of which compound Give H 2 S 2 O 3
a) Electrolysis of Conc. Na 2 SO 4
b) Electrolysis of Dil. Na 2 SO 4
c) Électrolysis of Conc. H 2 SO 4
d) Electrolysis of Dil. H 2 SO 4
Q. Compare boiling point of given solutions
(i) 10 − 4 . NaCl
(i) 10 − 3 NaCl
(iii) 10 − 2 NaCl
(iv) 10 − 4 urea
(1) I > II > III > N
(2) III > II > I > N
(3) il > I > ili > N
(4) III > II > II > N
Q. Let the triangle PQR be the image of the triangle with vertices ( 1 , 3 ) , ( 3 , 1 ) ( 2 , 4 ) in the line x + 2 y = 2 . if the centroid of △ PQR is the point ( α , β ) then 15 ( α − β ) is equation
Q. Find the Radius of Curvature of the Common surface of two bubble ( R 1 > R 2 )
a) R = R 1 R 2 R 1 + R 2
b) R = 2 R 1 R 2 R 1 − R 2
c) R = R 1 R 2 R 1 − R 2
d) R = R 1 R 2 R 1 − R 2
Q. A Parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 40 μ F is connected to a 100V power supply now the intermediate space between the plates is filled with a drelectric material of dielectric constant k = 2 . due to the introductiuon dielectric the extra charge and the change in electrostatic energy in the capacitor respectively or
(a) 2 mc and 0.4 J
(b) 2 mc and 0.2 J
(c) 4 mc and 0.2 J
(d) 8 mc and 2.J
Q. Given a 1 , a 2 , a 3 … are in GP such that a 1 a 5 = 28 and a 2 + a 4 = 29 find a 6 ?
Q. The correct order of electronegativity
1. F > Cl > Br > I
2. Cl > F > Br > I
3. F > Cl > I > Br
4. Br > F > I > Cl
Q. which of the following lanthanide ion as 7 e − in the outer moss shell
a) Eu + 3
3) G d + 3
c) Eu + 2
d) G d + 2
22 Jan Shift 2
Q. if 2 x 2 + ( cos θ ) x − 1 = 0 θ ∈ [ 0 , 2 π ] has roots α + β . Then the sum of maximum and minimum value of α 4 + β 4 is
4) 25 / 16
b) 9 / 16
c) 41 / 16
d) 8 / 17
Q. Which of the following doesn't show disproportionation reaction
(1) ClO −
(2) ClO 2 −
(3) ClO 3 −
(4) ClO 4 −
Q. Density of 3M NaOH is 1.25 g/mol. Molarity of the solution is _____.
Q. A ball of mass 100 grams throw m at speed 20 m / s with angle 60 percent degree with horizontal. Now tell the decrease in kinetic energy from point of throwing to the ball when it reaches to Max height basically a projectile question
Q. Which of the following has "two secondary hydrogens"
(1) 2,2,3,3-Dimethyl Pentane
(2) 2,2,4,4-Dimethyl Heptane
(3) 4- Ethyl-2,2 Di methyl hexane
(4) None of these
Q. If θ ∈ ( 0 , 2 π ] satisfying the system of equations 2 sin 2 θ = cos 2 θ and 2 cos 2 θ = 3 sin θ . Then the sum of all real values of θ is
1 3 π 2 2 π 3 π 2 4 5 π 6
Q. Arrange according to CFSE.
(i) [ Co ( NH 3 ) 4 ] 2 +
(ii) [ Co ( NH 3 ) 6 ] 3 +
(iii) [ Co ( NH 3 ) 6 ] 2 +
(iv) [ Co ( en ) 3 ] 3 +
1) (iv) > (ii) > (iii) ) > ( (i)
2) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
3) (i) > (iii) ) > (ii) > (iv)
4) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
Q. Find the correct dimensional formula for the capacitance in terms of M, L, T and C where they stand for unit of mass, length, time and charge.
Q.1 Which of the following element doesn't lie on same period
(a) Osmium
(b) Iridium
(c) Palladium
(d) Platinum
Q.2
Which of the following pair of ions are same coloured?
1 Ti 4 + , V 3 + 2 Cr 2 + , Cu 2 + 3 Cr 3 + , Ni 2 + 4 Mn 3 + , Fe 2 +
Q.3 Which of the following react with Hinsberg reagent?
(A) Aniline
(B) N , N -Dimethyl aniline
(C) Methyl amine
(D) C 6 H 5 NHC 6 H 5
. A only
. A and C only
. A , C and D
. A and B only
Q.4
CH 3 CH 2 CH = 0 → Excess HCHO [ A ]
Major product [ A ] will be:
Q.5
Statement 1: Fructose can give tollens test even though it does not have aldehyde group
Statement 2: When reacted with base fructose can undergo rearrangement to produce aldehyde group
(1) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and the Statement 2 is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
(4) If the Statement 1 and Statement 2 both are false.
Here are the steps to download the JEE Mains 2025 question paper with solutions once it gets released:
Go to the official website.
Register using your email ID.
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Simply download it and view the file.
Time Management: Solving the test papers will enable students to get used to the pressure of time that they will encounter on the day of the examination. They will know and manage the time they have taken to solve every section. They will thus try to expedite the process of decision-making.
Identifying Strengths and Weaknesses: It is also through solving the JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Solutions that the student gets to know which are his or her strong subjects and where more practice is needed.
Getting Acquainted with Exam Pattern: The exam pattern can change from year to year, and thus solving the previous years' question papers, such as the JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Answers, helps a student to get accustomed to any change in the pattern.
Boosting Confidence: More practice papers will only give students the sense of being familiar and confident about solving various types of questions that may arise in the actual examination.
Mode of Examination | Computer-based test (CBT) for all papers. |
Total Duration | 3 hours (180 minutes) |
Sections | 3 Sections – Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics |
Total Number of Questions | 75 questions (25 questions from each subject) |
Question Type | - Objective-type questions (Multiple Choice Questions - MCQs) - Numerical Answer Type (NAT) questions |
Distribution of Questions | - Physics: 25 Questions (MCQs + NAT) - Chemistry: 25 Questions (MCQs + NAT) - Mathematics: 25 Questions (MCQs + NAT) |
Marking Scheme | - MCQs: +4 marks for correct answer, -1 mark for incorrect answer. - NAT: +4 marks for correct answer, no negative marking for wrong answers. |
Total Marks | 300 Marks (Each section will carry 100 marks) |
Sections Breakdown | - Physics: 20 MCQs + 5 NATs - Chemistry: 20 MCQs + 5 NATs - Mathematics: 20 MCQs + 5 NATs |
Mode of Answering | - For MCQs: Select one correct option. - For NAT: Type the correct numerical answer. |
The JEE Main 2025 Question Paper will be available after the exam is conducted.
The JEE Main 2025 Question Paper PDF can be downloaded from the official website after the exam is held.
For MCQs, +4 marks will be there for correct answers and -1 for incorrect answers. For NAT, +4 marks with no negative marking.
Application Date:03 September,2024 - 16 April,2025
Hello,
You can check JEE Mains questions in the following ways:
The National Testing Agency (NTA) uploads JEE Mains question papers along with answer keys.
Visit their official website. (https://jeemain.nta.ac.in/)
Click on "Previous Year Question Papers" or "Download Answer Key & Response Sheet"
Select the year and session to download the PDF.
Download the NTA Abhyas App from the Google Play Store.
It provides free mock tests and past JEE Mains question papers .
Many educational platforms provide free PDFs and solutions , such as:
Unacademy
Vedantu
Byju’s
Resonance, FIITJEE, Allen Kota (coaching institutes)
Books like Arihant's 41 Years Chapter-wise JEE Questions and Disha’s JEE Main Solved Papers contain previous years' questions.
Hello,
With an OBC rank of 45,000 in JEE Main, securing admission to the Computer Science and Engineering (CSE) or Information Technology (IT) programs at UIET Chandigarh is unlikely . Historically, the closing ranks for these programs have been significantly higher.
For instance, in 2024 , the closing ranks for the General Category were:
CSE : 42,817
IT : 54,993
While OBC candidates benefit from a reservation, the adjusted ranks still typically fall within a range that makes admission with a 45,000 rank improbable.
Alternative Options:
Consider exploring other institutions where your rank might be competitive. For example, Chandigarh College of Engineering and Technology (CCET) had higher closing ranks in 2024:
CSE : 89,506
Electronics & Communication Engineering (ECE) : 123,221
Recommendations:
Participate in Counseling: Engage in the JAC Chandigarh counseling process to explore available options based on your rank.
Explore Other Institutes: Research engineering colleges where the previous years' cutoff ranks align more closely with your JEE Main rank.
Consider Branch Flexibility: Being open to branches other than CSE or IT can increase your chances of securing admission in reputable institutions.
Note: Cutoff ranks can vary each year based on factors like the number of applicants, seat availability, and overall performance. It's advisable to check the latest information during the counseling sessions.
Hello
For JEE Mains and Advanced preparation :
Physics :
NCERT : Build a strong foundation.
H.C. Verma : Conceptual clarity and problems.
I.E. Irodov : Advanced problems for JEE Advanced.
D.C. Pandey : Practice for different topics.
Chemistry :
NCERT : Core material for both Mains and Advanced.
Organic: M.S. Chauhan, Solomons and Fryhle.
Inorganic: J.D. Lee.
Physical: P. Bahadur for numericals.
Mathematics :
NCERT : Foundation.
I.A. Maron : Problems in algebra, calculus and trigonometry.
R.D. Sharma : Basic understanding and practice.
Cengage : Advanced problem sets for practice.
These books provide a structured approach to cover the syllabus and practice for both JEE Mains and Advanced.
For Class 12th, if you're preparing for JEE while ensuring a strong NCERT foundation, here are some of the best guides with excellent theory explanations:
Physics
1. Concepts of Physics by H.C. Verma (Vol 1 & 2) – Best for conceptual clarity and problem-solving.
2. Understanding Physics by D.C. Pandey (Arihant Series) – Topic-wise coverage with great theory and examples.
3. NCERT Exemplar & Physics NCERT (for basics) – Essential for board exams and JEE base concepts.
Chemistry
1. NCERT Chemistry (Both Physical & Organic) + NCERT Exemplar – Must for theory and direct JEE questions.
2. Modern’s ABC of Chemistry – Great for detailed theory aligned with NCERT.
3. Physical Chemistry by P. Bahadur – For numerical problems and JEE preparation.
4. Organic Chemistry by Morrison & Boyd (Optional) – For deeper conceptual clarity.
5. Inorganic Chemistry by J.D. Lee (adapted version for JEE) – Good for conc
eptual understanding.
Mathematics
1. NCERT Mathematics – Base book for boards and JEE fundamentals.
2. Cengage Mathematics Series – Provides topic-wise theory and a variety of problems.
3. Arihant’s Skills in Mathematics by Amit M Agarwal – Good for understanding advanced concepts.
4. Problems in Calculus of One Variable by I.A. Maron – For strong calculus preparation.
If you're looking for one-stop solutions for JEE + NCERT theory, Arihant’s and Cengage’s books provide excellent detailed explanations.
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A flight attendant is a professional whose primary duty is to ensure the safety and comfort of passengers during an airline flight. An individual who is pursuing a career as a flight attendant is part of the cabin crew for the plane, a team of personnel who operate a commercial, business, or even military aircraft while travelling domestically or internationally.
An individual pursuing a career as a flight attendant is specially trained for the aircraft in which he or she works since passenger safety is their foremost concern. In this article, we will discuss how to become a flight attendant in India or how to become a flight attendant after graduation.
An aerospace engineer is an individual who develops new ideas and technologies that can be used in defence systems, aviation, and spacecraft. He or she not only designs aircraft, spacecraft, satellites, and missiles but also creates test vehicles to ensure optimum functionality. Aerospace engineering is a branch of engineering that deals with the study, design, and development of aerial vehicles such as aircraft and spacecraft.
Aerospace engineering jobs deal with employees who design or build missiles and aircraft for national defence, or spacecraft. Aerospace engineering or aircraft engineering is often referred to as rocket science. The bottom line is that the person who is pursuing a career in aerospace engineering has to deal with multiple teams at different levels and work across various technologies.
A career in the aviation industry always sounds exciting. But, there is no scope for the slightest error as it may cost the lives of many people. A Flight Engineer role comes with the responsibility of monitoring the aircraft engine and control systems while in flight. Whenever the aircraft is away from the home station, he or she is required to perform pre-flight and post-flight inspections
An aircrew officer or airline commanders fly aircraft to provide transportation to passengers or cargo. The aircrew officer operates the engines of aircraft and controls to navigate and fly the airplane. The ability to learn new technologies every time and to stay up-to-date with the changes in the industry is what the aircrew officer should possess.
This could be possible through membership with professional pilot associations. The aircrew officer is also one of the highest-paid professionals and the job is quite coveted. Keep reading to find out what you need to know about how to become aircrew officer.
You may also read career as Airline Pilot.
An air hostess is a flight attendant also known as a cabin crew or steward. An air hostess undertakes several pre-flight, in-flight, and post-flight duties and is responsible for ensuring the safety and comfort of passengers on both national and international flights. A career as an air hostess might be desirable for you if you are excited about a job in which you can help people and travel to exciting places.
Air hostesses play a crucial role in the flight crew, working closely with pilots and ground personnel to provide a safe and comfortable travel experience, even beyond their hospitality responsibilities. Being flexible, having strong communication skills, and being dedicated to the comfort of passengers are all necessary for their dynamic function, which makes them essential to the entire travel experience.
An Aeronautical Engineer job comes with the responsibility of designing aircraft and thrust systems. He or she is employed in aviation, defence or civil aviation industries. Aeronautical Engineer is generally engaged in the design of aircraft and propulsion systems as well as the analysis of building materials and aircraft's aerodynamic performance. The role of an Aeronautical Engineer may involve assembling parts of aircraft, testing and maintaining them.
A Safety Manager is a professional responsible for employee’s safety at work. He or she plans, implements and oversees the company’s employee safety. A Safety Manager ensures compliance and adherence to Occupational Health and Safety (OHS) guidelines.
Are you searching for an 'airline pilot job description'? An airline pilot or airline commander flies aircraft and helicopters to provide transportation to passengers or cargo. The airline pilot operates the engines of the aircraft and controls them to navigate and fly the airplane. The ability to learn new technologies every time and to stay up-to-date with the changes in the industry is what aviators should possess. The career as airline pilot is also one of the highest-paid professionals and the job is quite coveted.
Welding Engineer Job Description: A Welding Engineer work involves managing welding projects and supervising welding teams. He or she is responsible for reviewing welding procedures, processes and documentation. A career as Welding Engineer involves conducting failure analyses and causes on welding issues.
A career as Transportation Planner requires technical application of science and technology in engineering, particularly the concepts, equipment and technologies involved in the production of products and services. In fields like land use, infrastructure review, ecological standards and street design, he or she considers issues of health, environment and performance. A Transportation Planner assigns resources for implementing and designing programmes. He or she is responsible for assessing needs, preparing plans and forecasts and compliance with regulations.
Individuals who opt for a career as an environmental engineer are construction professionals who utilise the skills and knowledge of biology, soil science, chemistry and the concept of engineering to design and develop projects that serve as solutions to various environmental problems.
A Safety Manager is a professional responsible for employee’s safety at work. He or she plans, implements and oversees the company’s employee safety. A Safety Manager ensures compliance and adherence to Occupational Health and Safety (OHS) guidelines.
A Conservation Architect is a professional responsible for conserving and restoring buildings or monuments having a historic value. He or she applies techniques to document and stabilise the object’s state without any further damage. A Conservation Architect restores the monuments and heritage buildings to bring them back to their original state.
A Structural Engineer designs buildings, bridges, and other related structures. He or she analyzes the structures and makes sure the structures are strong enough to be used by the people. A career as a Structural Engineer requires working in the construction process. It comes under the civil engineering discipline. A Structure Engineer creates structural models with the help of computer-aided design software.
Highway Engineer Job Description: A Highway Engineer is a civil engineer who specialises in planning and building thousands of miles of roads that support connectivity and allow transportation across the country. He or she ensures that traffic management schemes are effectively planned concerning economic sustainability and successful implementation.
Are you searching for a Field Surveyor Job Description? A Field Surveyor is a professional responsible for conducting field surveys for various places or geographical conditions. He or she collects the required data and information as per the instructions given by senior officials.
Individuals who opt for a career as geothermal engineers are the professionals involved in the processing of geothermal energy. The responsibilities of geothermal engineers may vary depending on the workplace location. Those who work in fields design facilities to process and distribute geothermal energy. They oversee the functioning of machinery used in the field.
A geologist attempts to comprehend the historical backdrop of the planet we live on, all the more likely to anticipate the future and clarify current events. He or she analyses the components, deployments, results, physical characteristics, and past of the planet. A geologist examines the landforms and landscapes of the earth in relation to the geology, climatic, and human processes that have shaped them.
A geologist studies earth procedures, for example, seismic tremors, avalanches, floods, and volcanic eruptions to review land and draw up safe structure plans. When he or she researches earth materials, explores metals and minerals, yet in addition search for oil, petroleum gas, water, and strategies to extricate these.
Energy efficiency engineering is a broad field of engineering which deals with energy efficiency, energy services, facility management, plant engineering, and sustainable energy resources. Energy efficiency engineering is one of the most recent engineering disciplines to emerge. The field combines the knowledge and understanding of physics, chemistry, and mathematics, with economic and environmental engineering practices. The main job of individuals who opt for a career as an energy performance engineer is to find the most efficient and sustainable path to operate buildings and manufacturing processes.
Individuals who opt for a career as energy performance engineers apply their understanding and knowledge to increase efficiency and further develop renewable sources of energy. The energy efficiency engineers also examine the use of energy in those procedures and suggest the ways in which systems can be improved.
A career as a Petroleum engineer is concerned with activities related to producing petroleum. These products can be in the form of either crude oil or natural gas. Petroleum engineering also requires the exploration and refinement of petroleum resources. Therefore, a career as a petroleum engineer comes up with oil and gas onshore jobs. There are also desk jobs in the petroleum industry. In layman’s terms, a petroleum engineer is a person who finds the best way to drill and extract oil from oil wells. Individuals who opt for a career as petroleum engineer also tries to find new ways to extract oil in an efficient manner.
A career as Transportation Planner requires technical application of science and technology in engineering, particularly the concepts, equipment and technologies involved in the production of products and services. In fields like land use, infrastructure review, ecological standards and street design, he or she considers issues of health, environment and performance. A Transportation Planner assigns resources for implementing and designing programmes. He or she is responsible for assessing needs, preparing plans and forecasts and compliance with regulations.
A career as a civil engineer is of great importance for the infrastructural growth of the country. It is one of the most popular professions and there is great professional as well as personal growth in this civil engineering career path. There is job satisfaction in this civil engineering career path, but it also comes with a lot of stress, as there are multiple projects that need to be handled and have to be completed on time. Students should pursue physics, chemistry and mathematics in their 10+2 to become civil engineers.
A career as a Transportation Engineer is someone who takes care of people's safety. He or she is responsible for designing, planning and constructing a safe and secure transportation system. The transportation sector has seen a huge transformation and is growing day by day and improving every day.
As a Transport Engineer, he or she needs to solve complex problems such as accidents, costs, traffic flow, and statistics. A Transport Engineer also collaborates for projects with some other companies.
A loco pilot or locomotive pilot is a professional responsible for operating trains. He or she starts, stops, or controls the speed of the train. A locomotive pilot ensures that the train operates according to time schedules and signals. These loco pilots are responsible for carrying people and products to distinct destinations.
A loco pilot has thorough knowledge and understanding of the railway operations, rules, regulations, protocols, and measures to take in times of emergency. Their role is crucial in ensuring passenger and freight trains' smooth and safe operation. Here, in this article, we will discuss everything on how to how to become a loco pilot.
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