JEE Main 2025 Question Paper - The Joint Entrance Examination or JEE Main is one of the exams that everyone is talking about in India. According to reports, it is always one of the exams that students compete for just to gain admission into some of the best colleges in India, usually the IITs and the NITs. Now that the JEE Main 2025 journey has ended, the roadmap for 2026 preparation begins. This is the right moment for aspirants to organize their study plans and get a head start. A strong beginning now can pave the way for top scores in JEE Main 2026. The exam is expected in two cycles—January and April 2026 - with Session 1 registration anticipated in November 2025.
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JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Solutions
Watch live analysis 8 April Shift 2
JEE Main 2025 Memory Based Questions
April 8 Shift 2 (ONLY 1 SHIFT)
April 7 Shift 2
April 7 Shift 1
April 4 Shift 2
Memory Based questions
JEE Main April 3 Shift 1 Question Paper
JEE Main April 2 All Shift Question Paper
April 2 Shift 2 Questions
April 2 Shift 1 Questions
JEE Main 2025 April session Question Paper PDF Free Download
JEE Main 2025 Question Paper PDF Free Download
Memory Based Questions JEE Main 2025 Exam January Session
Memory Based Questions of Jan 22 Shift 2 JEE Main 2025 Exam
Memory Based Questions of Jan 23 Shift 1 JEE Main 2025 Exam
How to download the JEE Main 2026 Question Paper With Solutions?
How Preparing for JEE Main 2026 Question Paper Assists in Exam Preparation
Exam Pattern of JEE Main 2026
JEE Main 2026 Question Paper with Solutions - Download Shift 1, 2 Free PDFs
Well, this will help students to prepare for the examination in a very strategic way. So, we have some details and tips for better preparation. Download the 2025 question paper for both Jan and April session paper from below! JEE Main answer key is released. For counselling you can join us online and offline as well via register on below link.
By checking the JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Answers students can gauge their performance and see whether they are on track with their preparation. Knowing the correct answers will clear doubts while reinforcing important concepts. It is important to forget only the answers, but also try to know the methods of how these answers come by.
The JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Answers will be available on this page after it is officially released on the website. These resources can help in the cross-checking of answers and help to understand different approaches to problem-solving.
Watch live analysis 8 April Shift 2
JEE Main 2025 Memory Based Questions
April 8 Shift 2 (ONLY 1 SHIFT)
A fractional errors in x,y and z are 0.1,0.2 and 0.5 respectively. Find the maximum fractional error in x−2y32z−25.
1) 0.2
2) 0.7
3) 0.6
4) 0.3
The number of rational terms in the binomial expansion of (512+718)1016 is
1) 129
2) 128
3) 127
4) 130
Consider the following statement
Statement I: H2Se is more acidic than H2Fe Statement II : H2Se has higher bond dissociation Enthalpy In light of the above statement, choose the correct option
1 Statement-1 is true & Statement-II is false
2 Statement-I is false & Statement-Il is true 3 Both Statement-I & Statement-II are true 4 Both Statement-1 & Statement-II are false
April 7 Shift 2
Q.1 Consider the following oxides
V2O5,Cr2O3,Mn2O7, V2O3,VO2 Number of oxides which are acidic is x. Consider the following complex compound [Co(NH2CH2CH2NH2)3]2(SO4)3 the primary valency of comple x is y The value of x+y is
Q 2. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as reason (R). Assertion (A) : Refractive index of glass is more than air. Reason (R) : Optical density of a medium is directly related to its mass density. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. (A) is false but (R) is true
2. (A) is true but (R) is false
3. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
4. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Q 3. If x|x−3|+3|x−2|+1=0, then the number of real solution is
1) 2
2) 4
3) 1
4) 6
April 7 Shift 1
Q.1. A compound having molecular formula MX3 has van't hoff factor of 2. What is the degree of dissociation? 10.25 20.5 30.3 40.75
Q 2. The dimensions of a physical quantity ε0dϕEdt are similar to [Symbols have their usual meanings]
1. Electric Current
2. Electric Field
3. Electric Flux
4. Electric Charge
Q 3. The remainder when 646464 is divided by 7 is equal to
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
April 4 Shift 2
Q.1 Maximum IE and minimum IE of group 13 elements
1B,ln
2B,TI 3Al,In 4Al,Tl
Q.2 Total number of electrons in chromium (Z=24) for which the value of azimuthal quantum number (I) is 1 and 2
Q 1. cot−1(74)+cot−1(194)+cot−1(394)+⋯∞
1)cot−1(2)2)cot−1(12)3)cot−1(13)4)cot−1(3)
Q 2. ∑k=1n(αk+1αk)2=20,α is one of the root of x2+x+1=0 then n= ?
Q 3. Let L1:x−13=y4=z5 and L2:x−p2=y3=z4. If the shortest distance between L1 and L2 is 16. Then possible value of p is
Q 1) A disc is performing pure rolling if speed of top point is 8 m/s. Find speed of point B.
April 4 Shift 1
Memory Based questions
Q.1 In the following, the number of paramagnetic molecules are : O2, N2, F2, B2,Cl2
Q.2 Which of the following is the ratio of 5th Bohr orbit (r5) of He+&Li2+ ? 1) 23 2) 32 3) 94 4) 49
Q 2. If the equation of an ellipse E is x29+y216=1, then the length of latus rectum of E is
1)3252)923)1634)95
Q 1) A ring and a solid sphere were released from rest from the same height on enough rough inclined surface. Ratio of their speed when they reach at bottom is 7x m/s, then x is
Q 2) Mean free path for an ideal gas is to be observed 20μ m while average speed of molecules of gas is observed to be 600 m/s, then frequency of collision is near by
April 3 Shift 2
Q.1 Find out the magnitude of work done in the process ABCD (in kJ) (1 atm. Lit = 101.3 J)
Q.2 Amount of magnesium (Mg) (in mg ) required to liberate 224 mL of H2 gas at STP, when reacted with HCl
Q.3 Among Sc, Ti, Mn and Co, Calculate the spin only magnetic moment in +2 oxidation state of metal having highest heat of atomisation.
Q.4 Statement-1: Wet cotton cloths made up of cellulose based carbo hydrate Takes comparatively longer time to get dried than wet nylon based clothes Statement - 2: Intermolecular hydrogen bonding with water molecule is more In nylon based clothes than in cotton clothes. 1. Statement - 1 and Statement - 2 are correct 2. Statement - 1 and Statement - 2 are incorrect 3. Statement - 1 is true and Statement - 2 is false 4. Statement - 1 is false and Statement - 2 is true
Q 5)An equilateral prism is made of a material of refractive index 2. Find the angle of incidence for minimum deviation of the light ray.
Q 6) The moment of inertia of a ring of mass M and radius R about an axis passing through the tangential point in the plane of the ring is
Q 7) What is the dimensional formula of 1μ0ε0 (where μ0 is permeability and ε0 is permittivity of free space)
Q 8) Two water drops each of radius of r coalesce to form a bigger drop. If T is the surface tension, surface energy released in this process is
Q 9) A particle moves on a circular path of radius 1 m. Find its displacement when it moves from A→B→A→B. Also its distance are it moves from A→B→A →B→A.
Q 10) A disc of mass M and radius 2 m is hinged, keeping the axis horizontal. If angular acceleration of the disc is 2rad/s2. Find moment of inertia
JEE Main April 3 Shift 1 Question Paper
Maths Questions
Q 1. Let A be 3 × 3 matrix such that det ( A ) = 5 . If det ( 3 adj ( 2 A adj ( 2 A ) ) ) = 2 α ⋅ 3 β ⋅ 5 γ , then ( α + β + γ ) is equal to
1. 25
2. 26
3. 27
4. 28
Q 2. The sum of all rational numbers in ( 2 + 3 ) 8 is
1. 18117
2. 18817
3. 17280
4. 1800
Q 3. If the sum ∑ r = 1 9 ( r + 3 r ) ⋅ 9 C r = α ⋅ ( 3 2 ) 9 − β , then the value of ( α + β ) 2 is equal to
1. 9
2. 81
3. 27
4. 36
3 april shift 1
Q.1 Which of the following ion shows spin only magnetic moment of 4.9 B.M. 1) Mn 2 + 2) Cr 2 + 3) Fe 3 + 4) Co 2 +
Q.2 Which of following has highest atomic number
1 Po
2 Pt
3 Pr
4 Pb
Q.3 An ideal gas with an adiabatic exponent 1.5 , initially at 27 ∘ C is compressed adiabatically from 800 cc to 200 C . The final temperature of the gas is (A) 700 K (B) 500 K (C) 250 K (D) 600 K
Q.4 2 moles each of ethylene glycol and glucose are mixed with 500 g of water. Find the boiling point of solution. Given : K b = 0.52 K kg mol − 1 1 377.16 K 2 368.84 K 3 376.16 K 4 369.84 K
Q.5 0.5 g of an organic compound gives 1.46 g CO 2 and 0.9 g H 2 O . What is the % of carbon in organic sample.
Physics
Q 1) An ideal gas with an adiabatic exponent 1.5 , initially at 27 ∘ C is compressed adiabatically from 800 cc to 200 cc . The final temperature of the gas is
Q 2) In YDSE, light of intensity of 4 I and 9 I passes through two slits respectively. The difference of maximum and minimum intensity of the interference pattern is
JEE Main April 2 All Shift Question Paper
The details of the april 2 shift 1 and 2 questions are given below
The JEE Main 2025 Session 2 paper was relatively moderate compared to both Session 1 and JEE Main 2024. The overall difficulty level followed the order: Chemistry > Physics > Mathematics. A higher proportion of questions were asked from Class 12 compared to Class 11. Chemistry was notably more difficult than both Mathematics and Physics, with the paper being moderate to tough as the questions did not follow predictable patterns. Meanwhile, Physics and Mathematics contained tricky questions, requiring careful analysis. Additionally, the paper included a few assertion and reason-type questions.
Some questions from both shifts are given below:
April 2 Shift 2 Questions
Chemistry
Q.1 Which of the following statement(s) is correct is/are for the adiabatic process? A. Molar heat capacity is zero. B. Molar heat capacity is infinite. C. Work done on gas is equal to increase in internal energy D. The increase in temperature results in decrease in internal energy
1 A and C only
2 B and C only
3 A and D only
Q.2 Which does not follow general trends among Halogens (1) I. E (2) Electro Affinity (3) Ionic Radius (4) Covalent Radius
Q.3 Relation between magnetic sucesptibility and magnetic permeability
Q.4 Which Amino acids is optically inactive (1) Alanine (2) Glycine (3) Valine (4) Aspartic Acid
Physics
Q.1 What is the units of viscosity, intensity of wave, and pressure gradient
Q.2 The figure shows an infinite plane having uniform charge density σ and a small charged particle having charge q and mass m suspended by a light insulating thread. Find σ if the charge is in equilibrium.
1 2 f 0 m g q 2 ε 0 m g 2 q 3 2 q ε 0 m g 4 2 q ε 0 m g
Q.3 Find the ratio of ( γ = C p C v ) for two gases having degree of freedoms f = 3 and f = 5 .
Q.4 The ratio of the magnetic field to the center of the circular coil to the magnetic field at a distance x from the center of a circular coil
( x R = 3 / 4 )
Q.5 Two point charges q and 9 q are placed at a distance of l from each other. Then the electric field is zero at a
1 Distance l 4 from charge 9 q 2 Distance 3 l 4 from charge q 3 Distance l 3 from charge 9 q 4 Distance l 4 from charge q
Q 1. Total number of terms in an A.P are even. Sum of odd terms is 24 and sum of even terms is 30. Last term exceeds the first term by 212. Find the total number of terms.
Q 2. If the domain of the function f(x)=13x+10−x2+1x+|x| is (a,b) then (1+a)2+b2 is equal to
1. 25 2. 16
3. 24
4. 26
Q 3. If θ∈[−7π6,4π3], then number solutions of 3cosec2θ−2(3−1)cosecθ−4=0, is
Q 4. Find the eccentricity of ellipse in which length of minor axis is equal to onefourth of the distance between foci
1. 4 17 2. 2 17 3. 7 17 4. 8 17
Q 1. Total number of terms in an A.P are even. Sum of odd terms is 24 and sum of even terms is 30. Last term exceeds the first term by 212. Find the total number of terms.
Q 2. If the domain of the function f(x)=13x+10−x2+1x+|x| is (a,b) then (1+a)2+b2 is equal to
1. 25 2. 16
3. 24
4. 26
Q 3. If θ∈[−7π6,4π3], then number solutions of 3cosec2θ−2(3−1)cosecθ−4=0, is
April 2 Shift 1 Questions
Q 1. Find the maximum value of n such that 50 ! is divisible by 3 n .
Q 2. Let P n = α n + β n , P 10 = 123 , P 9 = 76 , P 8 = 47 and P 1 = 1 , the quadratic equation whose roots are 1 α and 1 β .
1. x 2 + x − 1 = 0 2. x 2 − 2 x + 1 = 0 3. x 2 + x − 2 = 0 4. x 2 − x − 2 = 0
Q 3. Number of solutions in [ − 2 π , 2 π ] for equation 2 2 cos 2 θ + ( 2 − 6 ) cos θ − 3 = 0 .
Q 4. The total number of 10 digits sequences formed by only { 0 , 1 , 2 } where 1 should be used at least 5 times and 2 should be used exactly three times, is
Q 5. Let a 1 , a 2 , a 3 , … . is an A.P. and ∑ k = 1 12 a 2 k − 1 = − 72 5 a 1 and ∑ k = 1 n a k = 0 . Then the value of n is
Q.6 Which of the following statement(s) is correct is/are for the adiabatic process? A. Molar heat capacity is zero. B. Molar heat capacity is infinite. C. Work done on gas is equal to increase in internal energy D. The increase in temperature results in decrease in internal energy
1 A and C only
2 B and C only
3 A and D only
Q.7 What is the units of viscosity, intensity of wave and pressure gradient
Q.8 Which does not follow general trends among Halogens (1) I. E (2) Electro Affinity (3) Ionic Radius (4) Covalent Radius
Q.9 The figure shows an infinite plane having uniform charge density σ and a small charged particle having charge q and mass m suspended by a light insulating thread. Find σ if the charge is in equilibrium.
1 2 f 0 m g q 2 ε 0 m g 2 q 3 2 q ε 0 m g 4 2 q ε 0 m g
Q.10 Find the ratio of ( γ = C p C v ) for two gases having degree of freedoms f = 3 and f = 5 .
Q.11 Relation between magnetic sucesptibility and magnetic permeability
JEE Main 2025 April session Question Paper PDF Free Download
Know your college admission chances in NITs, IIITs and CFTIs, many States/ Institutes based on your JEE Main rank by using JEE Main 2025 College Predictor.
For those students who prefer digital utility, they can download the JEE Main 2025 Question Paper PDF once it gets released after the exam from the official website. Downloading the question paper in PDF file format is simple and allows access to the paper to practice offline as well as the option to customize by annotating the paper, noting the key takeaways, and tracking progress over some time.
Memory Based Questions JEE Main 2025 Exam January Session
Q. For [ NiCl 4 ] − 2 What is the charge on metal and shape of complex respectively? (1) +2 , tetrahedral (2) +2 , square planar (3) +4 , tetrahedral (4) +4, square planar
Q. Solid sphere of mass M , radius R exerts force F on a point mass. Now a concentric spherical mass M 7 is removed. What is new force? (1) F 7 (2) 6 7 F (3) 5 F 7 (4) 3 F 7
Q. Form a 5 letter word is to be made using any distinct 5 alphabets such that middle alphabet is M and letter should be in increasing order.
Q. Electrolysis of which compound Give H 2 S 2 O 3 a) Electrolysis of Conc. Na 2 SO 4 b) Electrolysis of Dil. Na 2 SO 4 c) Électrolysis of Conc. H 2 SO 4 d) Electrolysis of Dil. H 2 SO 4
Q. Compare boiling point of given solutions (i) 10 − 4 . NaCl (i) 10 − 3 NaCl (iii) 10 − 2 NaCl (iv) 10 − 4 urea (1) I > II > III > N (2) III > II > I > N (3) il > I > ili > N (4) III > II > II > N
Q. Let the triangle PQR be the image of the triangle with vertices ( 1 , 3 ) , ( 3 , 1 ) ( 2 , 4 ) in the line x + 2 y = 2 . if the centroid of △ PQR is the point ( α , β ) then 15 ( α − β ) is equation
Q. Find the Radius of Curvature of the Common surface of two bubble ( R 1 > R 2 )
a) R = R 1 R 2 R 1 + R 2 b) R = 2 R 1 R 2 R 1 − R 2 c) R = R 1 R 2 R 1 − R 2 d) R = R 1 R 2 R 1 − R 2
Q. A Parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 40 μ F is connected to a 100V power supply now the intermediate space between the plates is filled with a drelectric material of dielectric constant k = 2 . due to the introductiuon dielectric the extra charge and the change in electrostatic energy in the capacitor respectively or
(a) 2 mc and 0.4 J (b) 2 mc and 0.2 J (c) 4 mc and 0.2 J (d) 8 mc and 2.J
Q. Given a 1 , a 2 , a 3 … are in GP such that a 1 a 5 = 28 and a 2 + a 4 = 29 find a 6 ?
Q. The correct order of electronegativity
1. F > Cl > Br > I
2. Cl > F > Br > I
3. F > Cl > I > Br
4. Br > F > I > Cl
Q. which of the following lanthanide ion as 7 e − in the outer moss shell a) Eu + 3 3) G d + 3 c) Eu + 2 d) G d + 2
Memory Based Questions of Jan 22 Shift 2 JEE Main 2025 Exam
22 Jan Shift 2
Q. if 2 x 2 + ( cos θ ) x − 1 = 0 θ ∈ [ 0 , 2 π ] has roots α + β . Then the sum of maximum and minimum value of α 4 + β 4 is
4) 25 / 16 b) 9 / 16 c) 41 / 16 d) 8 / 17
Q. Which of the following doesn't show disproportionation reaction
(1) ClO −
(2) ClO 2 −
(3) ClO 3 −
(4) ClO 4 −
Q. Density of 3M NaOH is 1.25 g/mol. Molarity of the solution is _____.
Q. A ball of mass 100 grams throw m at speed 20 m / s with angle 60 percent degree with horizontal. Now tell the decrease in kinetic energy from point of throwing to the ball when it reaches to Max height basically a projectile question
Q. Which of the following has "two secondary hydrogens"
(1) 2,2,3,3-Dimethyl Pentane (2) 2,2,4,4-Dimethyl Heptane (3) 4- Ethyl-2,2 Di methyl hexane (4) None of these
Q. If θ ∈ ( 0 , 2 π ] satisfying the system of equations 2 sin 2 θ = cos 2 θ and 2 cos 2 θ = 3 sin θ . Then the sum of all real values of θ is
1 3 π 2 2 π 3 π 2 4 5 π 6
Q. Arrange according to CFSE. (i) [ Co ( NH 3 ) 4 ] 2 + (ii) [ Co ( NH 3 ) 6 ] 3 + (iii) [ Co ( NH 3 ) 6 ] 2 + (iv) [ Co ( en ) 3 ] 3 +
1) (iv) > (ii) > (iii) ) > ( (i)
2) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
3) (i) > (iii) ) > (ii) > (iv)
4) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
Q. Find the correct dimensional formula for the capacitance in terms of M, L, T and C where they stand for unit of mass, length, time and charge.
Memory Based Questions of Jan 23 Shift 1 JEE Main 2025 Exam
Q.1 Which of the following element doesn't lie on same period (a) Osmium (b) Iridium (c) Palladium (d) Platinum
Q.2
Which of the following pair of ions are same coloured?
1 Ti 4 + , V 3 + 2 Cr 2 + , Cu 2 + 3 Cr 3 + , Ni 2 + 4 Mn 3 + , Fe 2 + Q.3 Which of the following react with Hinsberg reagent? (A) Aniline (B) N , N -Dimethyl aniline (C) Methyl amine (D) C 6 H 5 NHC 6 H 5 . A only . A and C only . A , C and D . A and B only
Q.4
CH 3 CH 2 CH = 0 → Excess HCHO [ A ]
Major product [ A ] will be:
Q.5
Statement 1: Fructose can give tollens test even though it does not have aldehyde group Statement 2: When reacted with base fructose can undergo rearrangement to produce aldehyde group (1) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and the Statement 2 is the correct explanation of the assertion. (2) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of the assertion. (3) If Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false. (4) If the Statement 1 and Statement 2 both are false.
How to download the JEE Main 2026 Question Paper With Solutions?
Here are the steps to download the JEE Mains 2026 question paper with solutions once it gets released:
Go to the official website.
Register using your email ID.
The JEE question paper pdf download link will be sent to the registered email ID.
Simply download it and view the file.
How Preparing for JEE Main 2026 Question Paper Assists in Exam Preparation
Time Management: Solving the test papers will enable students to get used to the pressure of time that they will encounter on the day of the examination. They will know and manage the time they have taken to solve every section. They will thus try to expedite the process of decision-making.
Identifying Strengths and Weaknesses: It is also through solving the JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Solutions that the student gets to know which are his or her strong subjects and where more practice is needed.
Getting Acquainted with Exam Pattern: The exam pattern can change from year to year, and thus solving the previous years' question papers, such as the JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Answers, helps a student to get accustomed to any change in the pattern.
Boosting Confidence: More practice papers will only give students the sense of being familiar and confident about solving various types of questions that may arise in the actual examination.
With 39 percentile in JEE Mains, it's very unlikely to get CSE or IT at Sanjivani College, Kopargaon under the All India quota. You may try for lower-demand branches or go through management quota. Better chances if you improve your score in the next attempt.
With 91.30 percentile in JEE Main under OBC and home state quota, you have a fair chance of getting CSE at OUTR Bhubaneswar. Last year’s cutoff for OBC (home state) was around your range. It’s a close call, so make sure to fill OUTR CSE as a top preference during counselling and also keep backup options like IT or ECE. Monitor the counselling rounds closely for better chances.
Your JEE Main rank is 983171 so you cannot get admission in DY Patil College because their cutoff is below 3 to 4 lakh your rank is very high so it is not possible for any branch in DY Patil College you can try in some private colleges with low cutoff or go for diploma or other course optio
Since you're a non-domicile candidate and you've appeared for both JEE and MHT CET, you should ideally apply for admission to engineering colleges in Maharashtra using your JEE Main score.
As a non-domicile (i.e., not a resident of Maharashtra), you're not eligible for seats reserved under the state quota in MHT CET. However, JEE Main is accepted for admission to the All India Quota seats in Maharashtra engineering colleges, and these seats are specifically meant for candidates from outside the state.
Many top private engineering colleges and a few government-aided institutes in Maharashtra reserve a percentage of their seats for candidates applying through JEE Main under the All India category. So, even if you’ve written MHT CET, your MHT CET score won’t be valid for state quota seats unless you hold domicile. Hence, for you, JEE Main is the right route.
Make sure to apply during the CAP (Centralized Admission Process) rounds and select colleges where All India Quota seats are available.
With your given JEE Mains percentile and rank you can focus on applying to tier two engineering colleges in Maharashtra as well as explore options in the JoSAA counselling rounds You have realistic chances in certain branches and colleges that generally have slightly higher closing ranks
In Maharashtra for tier two engineering colleges you can consider institutes that participate in the MHTCET counselling as well as those that accept JEE Mains scores These include institutions like Bharati Vidyapeeth College of Engineering Pune MIT Academy of Engineering Pune D Y Patil College of Engineering Akurdi PCCOE Pune and AISSMS College of Engineering Pune These colleges often have seats available for Computer Science Chemical Engineering or allied branches You may find it a bit challenging to get into Computer Science in these colleges as the demand is high but Chemical Engineering or related branches may have higher closing ranks giving you a better chance
For JoSAA counselling your OBC rank places you in a zone where NITs and IIITs in core branches may not be accessible in the earlier rounds but you can explore institutes in the northeast and newer NITs where Chemical Engineering or Electronics and Communication Engineering seats may remain open until the last rounds For example NIT Mizoram NIT Nagaland NIT Sikkim NIT Arunachal Pradesh or NIT Puducherry may have closing ranks that match your OBC rank for Chemical or Electronics and Communication Engineering
When it comes to government colleges for Mechanical Engineering you can look at state level government engineering colleges that take JEE Mains score for admission These include Government College of Engineering Amravati Government College of Engineering Karad and Government College of Engineering Chandrapur Your chances are better in Mechanical Engineering as the closing ranks tend to go higher compared to Computer Science and related streams
In JoSAA it is important to fill a wide range of choices and not limit your options only to preferred branches You should include Chemical Engineering Mechanical Engineering Production Engineering Metallurgical and other allied branches to maximize your chance of securing a seat during the counselling process Participate in all rounds and pay attention to mock seat allotments to understand where your chances are higher
Keep documents ready such as your JEE Mains admit card score card category certificate and academic certificates for smooth participation in counselling Also consider applying for state counselling processes such as MHTCET or similar as a backup
With seventy five percentile and an All India Rank of three lakh sixty seven thousand and an OBC rank of one lakh thirty one thousand you can target tier two colleges in Maharashtra like Bharati Vidyapeeth College of Engineering MIT Academy of Engineering D Y Patil College of Engineering and PCCOE for branches like Chemical Engineering or Mechanical Engineering Through JoSAA you may expect chances in Chemical or Electronics and Communication Engineering at newer NITs and institutes in northeast India Be flexible with your choices and participate actively in all counselling rounds to secure a suitable seat in a good college
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A career as Transportation Planner requires technical application of science and technology in engineering, particularly the concepts, equipment and technologies involved in the production of products and services. In fields like land use, infrastructure review, ecological standards and street design, he or she considers issues of health, environment and performance. A Transportation Planner assigns resources for implementing and designing programmes. He or she is responsible for assessing needs, preparing plans and forecasts and compliance with regulations.
An architect plans and designs buildings, ensuring they are safe, functional, and aesthetically pleasing. They collaborate with clients, engineers, and contractors throughout the construction process. Key skills include creativity, design software proficiency, and knowledge of building codes. In India, a 5-year B.Arch degree and registration with the Council of Architecture are required to practise professionally.
Having a landscape architecture career, you are involved in site analysis, site inventory, land planning, planting design, grading, stormwater management, suitable design, and construction specification. Frederick Law Olmsted, the designer of Central Park in New York introduced the title “landscape architect”. The Australian Institute of Landscape Architects (AILA) proclaims that "Landscape Architects research, plan, design and advise on the stewardship, conservation and sustainability of development of the environment and spaces, both within and beyond the built environment". Therefore, individuals who opt for a career as a landscape architect are those who are educated and experienced in landscape architecture. Students need to pursue various landscape architecture degrees, such as M.Des, M.Plan to become landscape architects. If you have more questions regarding a career as a landscape architect or how to become a landscape architect then you can read the article to get your doubts cleared.
Urban Planning careers revolve around the idea of developing a plan to use the land optimally, without affecting the environment. Urban planning jobs are offered to those candidates who are skilled in making the right use of land to distribute the growing population, to create various communities.
Urban planning careers come with the opportunity to make changes to the existing cities and towns. They identify various community needs and make short and long-term plans accordingly.
A plumber installs, maintains, and repairs water, gas, and waste systems in homes and buildings. Their duties include fixing leaks, installing fixtures, testing systems, ensuring safety compliance, and working with other professionals on projects. They also document repairs and may supervise apprentices. Plumbers play a key role in ensuring public health and the smooth functioning of essential utilities.
Individuals who opt for a career as construction managers have a senior-level management role offered in construction firms. Responsibilities in the construction management career path are assigning tasks to workers, inspecting their work, and coordinating with other professionals including architects, subcontractors, and building services engineers.
Individuals who opt for a career as an environmental engineer are construction professionals who utilise the skills and knowledge of biology, soil science, chemistry and the concept of engineering to design and develop projects that serve as solutions to various environmental problems.
Individuals who opt for a career as geothermal engineers are the professionals involved in the processing of geothermal energy. The responsibilities of geothermal engineers may vary depending on the workplace location. Those who work in fields design facilities to process and distribute geothermal energy. They oversee the functioning of machinery used in the field.
Energy efficiency engineering is a broad field of engineering which deals with energy efficiency, energy services, facility management, plant engineering, and sustainable energy resources. Energy efficiency engineering is one of the most recent engineering disciplines to emerge. The field combines the knowledge and understanding of physics, chemistry, and mathematics, with economic and environmental engineering practices. The main job of individuals who opt for a career as an energy performance engineer is to find the most efficient and sustainable path to operate buildings and manufacturing processes.
Individuals who opt for a career as energy performance engineers apply their understanding and knowledge to increase efficiency and further develop renewable sources of energy. The energy efficiency engineers also examine the use of energy in those procedures and suggest the ways in which systems can be improved.
A geologist attempts to comprehend the historical backdrop of the planet we live on, all the more likely to anticipate the future and clarify current events. He or she analyses the components, deployments, results, physical characteristics, and past of the planet. A geologist examines the landforms and landscapes of the earth in relation to the geology, climatic, and human processes that have shaped them.
A geologist studies earth procedures, for example, seismic tremors, avalanches, floods, and volcanic eruptions to review land and draw up safe structure plans. When he or she researches earth materials, explores metals and minerals, yet in addition search for oil, petroleum gas, water, and strategies to extricate these.
A career as a Petroleum engineer is concerned with activities related to producing petroleum. These products can be in the form of either crude oil or natural gas. Petroleum engineering also requires the exploration and refinement of petroleum resources. Therefore, a career as a petroleum engineer comes up with oil and gas onshore jobs. There are also desk jobs in the petroleum industry. In layman’s terms, a petroleum engineer is a person who finds the best way to drill and extract oil from oil wells. Individuals who opt for a career as petroleum engineer also tries to find new ways to extract oil in an efficient manner.
A career as Transportation Planner requires technical application of science and technology in engineering, particularly the concepts, equipment and technologies involved in the production of products and services. In fields like land use, infrastructure review, ecological standards and street design, he or she considers issues of health, environment and performance. A Transportation Planner assigns resources for implementing and designing programmes. He or she is responsible for assessing needs, preparing plans and forecasts and compliance with regulations.
A career as a civil engineer is of great importance for the infrastructural growth of the country. It is one of the most popular professions and there is great professional as well as personal growth in this civil engineering career path. There is job satisfaction in this civil engineering career path, but it also comes with a lot of stress, as there are multiple projects that need to be handled and have to be completed on time. Students should pursue physics, chemistry and mathematics in their 10+2 to become civil engineers.
A career as a Transportation Engineer is someone who takes care of people's safety. He or she is responsible for designing, planning and constructing a safe and secure transportation system. The transportation sector has seen a huge transformation and is growing day by day and improving every day.
As a Transport Engineer, he or she needs to solve complex problems such as accidents, costs, traffic flow, and statistics. A Transport Engineer also collaborates for projects with some other companies.
A Loco Pilot operates trains, ensuring safe and timely transport of passengers or goods. Starting as an Assistant Loco Pilot, one can progress to senior roles with experience. The job demands technical knowledge, focus, and adherence to safety protocols. It involves coordination with train staff and may require working long hours under pressure.
