JEE Mains 2025 January 22 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions Available

JEE Mains 2025 January 22 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions Available

Edited By Shivani Poonia | Updated on Feb 04, 2025 06:05 PM IST | #JEE Main
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The JEE Main 2025 January 22 Shift 2 Exam just got over! The paper was moderately difficult. As the JEE Main January 22 Shift 2 exam is over, students can now check a comprehensive answer and question of the paper in terms of question distribution and section-wise weightage here on this page. The JEE Main 2025 January 22 Shift 2 Question Paper PDF and the solution key for this paper is compiled and ready, thus helping students who took the test in preparing and revising.JEE Main answer key is released.

This Story also Contains
  1. JEE Main 2025 January 22 Shift 2 Exam Pattern and Structure
  2. JEE Main January 22 Shift 2 Memory-based questions
  3. Previous Years Question Paper
  4. JEE Main 2025 January 22 Shift 2 Analysis
  5. Trends and Overall Analysis
JEE Mains 2025 January 22 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions Available
JEE Mains 2025 January 22 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions Available
LiveJEE Mains 2025 LIVE: NTA JEE session 1 results on February 12; session 2 registration last dateFeb 6, 2025 | 10:31 PM IST

The JEE Mains 2025 question paper will have 75 questions in total. Each section of JEE Mains question paper 2025 will have 25 questions.

Read More

JEE Main 2025 January 22 Shift 2 Exam Pattern and Structure

Total Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Total Questions75 questions
Maximum Marks300 marks
Medium of ExamAvailable in 13 languages
Mode of ExamComputer Based Test (CBT)
Question TypeMCQs and Numerical Value Based

JEE Main January 22 Shift 2 Memory-based questions

Q. if $2 x^2+(\cos \theta) x-1=0 \quad \theta \in[0,2 \pi]$ has roots $\alpha+\beta$. Then the sum of maximum and minimum value of $\alpha^4+\beta^4$ is

4) $25 / 16$
b) $9 / 16$
c) $41 / 16$
d) $8 / 17$

Q. Which of the following doesn't show disproportionation reaction

(1) $\mathrm{ClO}^{-}$

(2) $\mathrm{ClO}_2^{-}$

(3) $\mathrm{ClO}_3^{-}$

(4) $\mathrm{ClO}_4^{-}$

Q. Density of 3M NaOH is 1.25 g/mol. Molarity of the solution is _____.

Q. A ball of mass 100 grams throw $m$ at speed $20 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$ with angle 60 percent degree with horizontal. Now tell the decrease in kinetic energy from point of throwing to the ball when it reaches to Max height basically a projectile question

Q. Which of the following has "two secondary hydrogens"

(1) 2,2,3,3-Dimethyl Pentane
(2) 2,2,4,4-Dimethyl Heptane
(3) 4- Ethyl-2,2 Di methyl hexane
(4) None of these

Q. If $\theta \in(0,2 \pi]$ satisfying the system of equations $2 \sin ^2 \theta=\cos 2 \theta$ and $2 \cos ^2 \theta=3 \sin \theta$. Then the sum of all real values of $\theta$ is

$\begin{array}{cc}1 & \frac{3 \pi}{2} \\ 2 & \pi \\ 3 & \frac{\pi}{2} \\ 4 & \frac{5 \pi}{6}\end{array}$

Q. Arrange according to CFSE.
(i) $\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_4\right]^{2+}$
(ii) $\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_6\right]^{3+}$
(iii) $\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_6\right]^{2+}$
(iv) $\left[\mathrm{Co}(\mathrm{en})_3\right]^{3+}$

1) (iv) $>$ (ii) $>$ (iii) $)>($ (i)

2) (iv) $>$ (iii) $>$ (ii) $>$ (i)

3) (i) $>$ (iii) $)>$ (ii) $>$ (iv)

4) (i) $>$ (ii) $>$ (iii) $>$ (iv)

Q. Find the correct dimensional formula for the capacitance in terms of M, L, T and C where they stand for unit of mass, length, time and charge.

Q. The maximum percentage error in the measurement of density of a wire is

$
\begin{aligned}
& m=(0.60 \pm 0.003) \mathrm{g} \\
& r=(0.50 \pm 0.01) \mathrm{cm} \\
& l=(10.00 \pm 0.05) \mathrm{cm}
\end{aligned}
$

Q. If the mean deviation about median for the number $3,5,7,2 \mathrm{k}, 12,16,21,24$ arranged in ascending order is 6 then the median is

Q. Assertion:- simple pendulum is taken on a planet of mass 4 times of earth and radius 2 time of earth then the time period is remains constant
Reason:- Time period of simple pendulum is constant on earth and on any other planet

Q. Let $A=\{1,2,3,4\}$ and $B=\{1,4,9,16\}$.
If $f: A \rightarrow B$, then number of many-one functions from $A$ to $B$ are

Q. 4 boys and 3 girls are to be seated in a row that all girl seat together and two particular boys $B_1$ and $S_2$ are not adjecent to each other. Then the number of ways in which this aseagerpent can be done
4) 432
b) 430
c) 516
d) 1002

Q. $\sum_{r=1}^{30} \frac{r^2\left({ }^{30} C_r\right)^2}{{ }^{30} C_{r-1}}=\alpha \times 2^{29}$, then $\alpha=$

Q. which of the following anion will not undergoes disproportionation?

a) $\mathrm{ClO}_4^{-}$

b) $\mathrm{ClO}_3^{-}$

c) $\mathrm{ClO}_2^{-}$

d) $\mathrm{ClO}^{-}$

1737552265064

Previous Years Question Paper

Below are the past years question paper that can help you prepare better for JEE Main 2025 January 22 Shift 2 Exam.

JEE Main 2025 January 22 Shift 2 Analysis

JEE Main 2025 Paper : Memory Based Questions and Analysis of 22nd January (Shift-1)Download now
JEE Main 2025 Paper : Memory Based Questions and Analysis of 22nd January (Shift-2)Download now

Mathematics Section

The Mathematics section for Shift 2 focused on problem-solving and concept mastery approaches. Key topics that was include:

  • Calculus: 30-35% weightage was given to these topics and includes topics such as complex integration, differential equations continuity, and differentiability.
  • Algebra: About 30%, it is recommended to the students to pay attention to matrices, determinants, and quadratic equations for next shift.
  • Coordinate Geometry: 20%,
  • Vectors and 3D Geometry: 15%
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In general, this section was Moderate, and it contained a good number of theoretical and practical questions.

Physics Section

In Physics, there is a stronger bias towards mechanics and electromagnetism in the section as well. The major topic distribution included:

  • Mechanics: 35 %
  • Electromagnetism: 30% detailing on electric fields, electricity circuits, and magnetic effects of current.
  • Modern Physics: radioactivity and the atomic models being 20%.
  • Thermodynamics: 15%, with questions related to application in such areas as heat transfer and the law of thermodynamics being tested in an application-based question.
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It is considered moderately challenging. The JEE Main 2025 22 Jan shift 2 paper and the JEE Mains 2025 question paper pdf shift 2 will help students practice time-bound questions effectively.

Chemistry Section

The Chemistry section was easy, with the following distribution:

  • Organic Chemistry: 40%
  • Physical Chemistry: 35%, specifically chemical kinetics, thermodynamics, and chemical equilibria.
  • Inorganic Chemistry 25%.

Trends and Overall Analysis

The overall difficulty level of the paper is moderate, with Mathematics and Physics being relatively more challenging than Chemistry. Questions across all sections adhered to the NCERT syllabus, combining theoretical knowledge with practical application. For optimal preparation, students should utilize both the JEE Mains 22 January shift 2 question paper analysis and the JEE Mains 2024 question paper pdf.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. When will the JEE Main 2025 January 22 Shift 2 Question Paper and Solutions be available?

The JEE Main 2025 January 22 Shift 2 Question Paper and Solutions is available on this page. These resources will help students evaluate their performance and enhance their preparation for subsequent shifts and the April session.

2. What was the difficulty level of the JEE Main 2025 January 22 Shift 2 Exam?

The JEE Main 2025 January 22 Shift 2 exam was of moderate level. While Mathematics and Physics are more challenging, particularly in topics such as Calculus and Mechanics, Chemistry was the easiest section, with a focus on Organic Chemistry and factual questions from NCERT texts.

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Questions related to JEE Main

Have a question related to JEE Main ?

With a score of 94 in JEE Main 2025 and your classification as an OBC-NCL-PwD candidate, your estimated percentile is approximately 70–75. This percentile range typically corresponds to an All India Rank (AIR) between 50,000 and 60,000.



Admission Prospects for Computer Science Engineering (CSE):


Securing a seat in the Computer Science Engineering (CSE) branch at top National Institutes of Technology (NITs) with this rank may be challenging, as the cutoffs for CSE are generally higher. For instance, NIT Trichy had a closing rank of 4,178 for OBC-NCL candidates in 2024.

Refer: engineering.careers360.com/articles/nits-cutoff-for-b-tech-computer-science-and-engineering


Alternative Options:


Given the competitive nature of CSE admissions, you might consider the following alternatives:


Other Engineering Branches: Exploring branches with relatively lower cutoffs, such as Civil Engineering, Mechanical Engineering, or Electrical Engineering, could increase your chances of securing a seat.


State Engineering Colleges: Considering reputable state engineering colleges in Tamil Nadu, such as Anna University and its affiliated institutions, may offer more favorable admission prospects.


Private Institutions: Private engineering colleges and universities often have different admission criteria and may provide opportunities in the CSE branch.


Next Steps:


Participate in Counseling: Engage in the Joint Seat Allocation Authority (JoSAA) counseling process to explore available options across various institutes and branches.


Stay Informed: Regularly check official announcements and cutoff trends for the current year, as they can vary based on factors like exam difficulty and the number of applicants.


Consider State Quota: Utilize the home state quota in NITs located in Tamil Nadu, as it can improve your chances of securing a seat in preferred branches.


While the path to securing a seat in CSE at top NITs may be challenging with your current rank, exploring alternative branches and institutions can still lead to a rewarding engineering education.

Based on analyses of the JEE Main 2025 exam conducted on January 23, Shift 1, scoring 75 marks is expected to place you in the 87.5 to 90.7 percentile range.

Scoring 102 marks in JEE Main 2025, Session 1, typically corresponds to a percentile between 94.01% and 94.97%. (assumption)

This percentile indicates that your performance is better than approximately 94% to 95% of the candidates who appeared for the exam.

In the JEE Main 2025 exam held on January 23, Shift 2, the highest scores are anticipated to be between 130 and 140 marks out of 300.

This range suggests that the exam was of moderate difficulty, as indicated by the average difficulty ratings of 5.3 and 6.3 for the respective shifts.

The provisional answer key for JEE Main 2025 Session 1 is released by NTA on February 4, 2025. You can access it on the official NTA website by logging in with your application details. If you find any discrepancies, you can challenge the answer key until February 6, 2025 by paying a fee of 200 rupees per question. The final answer key will be released after reviewing challenges, and the results will be announced on February 12, 2025.

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