Careers360 Logo
ask-icon
share
    GATE 2026 Question Paper with Solutions - Download Last Year PDF for All Subjects

    GATE 2026 Question Paper with Solutions - Download Last Year PDF for All Subjects

    Shivani PooniaUpdated on 20 Mar 2026, 11:04 AM IST

    GATE 2026 Question Paper - The GATE 2026 Question Paper plays an important role in helping students understand the exam pattern, difficulty level, and topic-wise weightage across different subjects. IIT Guwahati has uploaded the official question papers and answer key for GATE exam 2026 on the official wensite. The GATE 2026 paper is one of the most awaited resources for engineering aspirants appearing for the exam. The GATE exams scheduled for February 7, 8, 14, and 15 have been successfully concluded across all shifts. To help students analyse the latest exam pattern and difficulty level, this article provides GATE question papers.
    Latest - GATE 2026 Feb 7 Paper Analysis | GATE 2026 Feb 8 Paper Analysis

    LiveGATE 2026 Result LIVE (OUT): IIT Guwahati MTech entrance exam result at gate2026.iitg.ac.in; toppers, branchesMar 20, 2026 | 11:33 PM IST

    The computer-based test GATE 2026 was conducted on February 7, 8, 14, and 15, 2026 by the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Guwahati.

    Read More

    This Story also Contains

    1. GATE Official Question Paper
    2. GATE 2026 Memory-Based Question
    3. GATE 2026 February 15 DA Memory-based questions Afternoon Session:
    4. GATE 2026 February 14 CE-2 Memory-based questions Afternoon Session:
    5. GATE 2026 CE-1 February 14 Memory-Based questions(Forenoon Session)
    6. GATE 2026 February 14 EE Memory-based questions Forenoon Session:
    7. GATE 2026 February 8 CSE Memory based questions Forenoon Session:
    8. GATE 2026 CSE Question Paper 8 Feb Afternoon Session:
    9. GATE 2026 February 7 Memory Based Questions:
    10. GATE 2026 Exam Analysis: Difficulty Level and Highlights
    11. GATE 2026 8 Feb Exam Analysis
    12. GATE 2026 7 Feb Exam Analysis
    13. GATE 2026 Subject-wise Weightage
    14. Download GATE Previous Year Question Papers PDF
    15. GATE 2026 Question Paper Code and Marking Scheme
    16. GATE 2026 Preparation Tips
    GATE 2026 Question Paper with Solutions - Download Last Year PDF for All Subjects
    GATE 2026 Question Paper

    GATE is the entrance examination taken by engineering graduates who wish to pursue further studies or secure a job at Indian Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs). To crack GATE 2026, the best method is to solve previous year papers. Solving these PYQs will help aspirants understand topic-wise weightage, improve accuracy, and build a strong strategy for upcoming attempts and PSU/PG admissions.
    Also read: GATE: How to Prepare for Chemical Engineering


    GATE Official Question Paper

    IIT Guhawati has released the GATE 2026 Official Question Paper subject wise, below we provided the GATE 2026 Question Paper.

    Aerospace Engineering 2026 Question Paper
    Computer Science & Information Technology (CS-2) (Afternoon) 2026 Question Paper
    Geology and Geophysics - Geophysics (GG-2) 2026 Question Paper
    Agricultural Engineering 2026 Question Paper
    Chemistry 2026 Question Paper
    Instrumentation Engineering 2026 Question Paper
    Architecture and Planning 2026 Question Paper
    Data Science & Artificial Intelligence 2026 Question Paper
    Mathematics 2026 Question Paper
    Biomedical Engineering 2026 Question Paper
    Electronics & Communication Engineering 2026 Question Paper
    Mechanical Engineering 2026 Question Paper
    Biotechnology 2026 Question Paper
    Electrical Engineering 2026 Question Paper
    Mining Engineering 2026 Question Paper
    Civil Engineering (CE-1) (Forenoon) 2026 Question Paper
    Environmental Science & Engineering 2026 Question Paper
    Metallurgical Engineering 2026 Question Paper
    Civil Engineering (CE-2) (Afternoon) 2026 Question Paper
    Ecology and Evolution 2026 Question Paper
    Naval Architecture & Marine Engineering 2026 Question Paper
    Chemical Engineering 2026 Question Paper
    Geomatics Engineering 2026 Question Paper
    Petroleum Engineering 2026 Question Paper
    Computer Science & Information Technology (CS-1) (Forenoon) 2026 Question Paper
    Geology and Geophysics - Geology (GG-1) 2026 Question Paper
    Physics 2026 Question Paper
    Production & Industrial Engineering 2026 Question Paper
    Humanities & Social Sciences - Economics (XH-C1) 2026 Question Paper
    Humanities & Social Sciences - Linguistics (XH-C3) 2026 Question Paper
    Statistics 2026 Question Paper
    Humanities & Social Sciences - English (XH-C2) 2026 Question Paper
    Humanities & Social Sciences - Philosophy (XH-C4) 2026 Question Paper
    Textile Engineering & Fibre Science 2026 Question Paper
    Humanities & Social Sciences - Psychology (XH-C5) 2026 Question Paper
    Humanities & Social Sciences - Sociology (XH-C6) 2026 Question Paper
    Engineering Sciences 2026 Question Paper
    Life Sciences 2026 Question Paper

    UPES M.Tech Admissions 2026

    Last Date to Apply: 26th March | Ranked #45 Among Universities in India by NIRF | 1950+ Students Placed 91% Placement, 800+ Recruiters

    Vivekananda Global University M.Tech Admissions 2026

    NAAC A+ Accredited | Scholarships worth 5 CR

    GATE 2026 Memory-Based Question

    Below, we have provided the shift-wise unofficial GATE 2026 questions that are collected from students to help future aspirants understand the exam pattern and key topics.

    GATE 2026 College Predictor
    Estimate your M.Tech admission chances in top engineering colleges using your GATE 2026 score & marks with our accurate and easy-to-use College Predictor tool.
    Try Now

    GATE 2026 February 15 DA Memory-based questions Afternoon Session:

    The afternoon session of the GATE 2026 DA paper held on February 15 has now concluded. Below, we have compiled memory-based questions shared by candidates to help you analyse the exam pattern, important topics, and overall difficulty level.

    Question 1: Which of the following is not an uninformed search?

    (A) DFS

    (B) BFS

    (C) A*

    (D) DLS

    Question 2: Node size = 4096 B
    Node pointer =10 B
    Search key = 11 B
    Record pointer = 12 B
    Find the maximum number of node pointers.

    Question 3: Which of the following recurrence relations represents the average case time complexity of QuickSort?
    (A) T(n)=T(n/4)+T(3n/4)+O(n)
    (B) T(n)=2T(n/2)+O(n)
    (C) T(n)=1n∑k=0n−1[T(k)+T(n−k−1)]+O(n)
    (D) T(n)=T(1)+T(n−1)+O(n)

    Question 4: Consider the relation R(A,B,C,D,E)
    Functional Dependencies:

    A→BC, CD→E, E→A
    Find the number of candidate keys.

    Question 5: Which of the following logical statements is not valid?
    (A) ∀xP(x)⇒∃x¬P(x)
    (B) ∀xP(x)⇒∃xP(x)
    (C) ∃xP(x)⇒∀xP(x)
    (D) ∃xP(x)⇔∀xP(x)

    Question 6: Consider a binary tree whose preorder traversal is

    P,Q,S,E,R,F,G

    and inorder traversal is

    S,Q,E,P,F,R,G.
    Which of the following statements is correct?
    (A) Node Q has only one child.
    (B) Postorder traversal is S,E,Q,F,G,R,P.
    (C) P is the root of the tree.
    (D) The left subtree of node R contains node G.

    Question 7: Consider the Visualisation of a 3-dimensional data cube showing sales quantity for each combination of attributes: Product type, Month and Country. From the visualization, to see the sales quantity for each combination, which of following OLAP operations should be performed?

    (A) Slice

    (B) Dicing

    (C) Rollup

    (D) drill down

    GATE 2026 February 15 EC Memory-based questions Forenoon Session:

    The forenoon session of the GATE 2026 EC paper held on February 15 has now concluded. Below, we have compiled memory-based questions shared by candidates to help you analyse the exam pattern, important topics, and overall difficulty level.

    Question 1: Find the transmission Parameters.

    Question 2: In the given op-amp circuit, the non-inverting terminal is grounded. The input voltage is 2 V applied through 1kΩ. The feedback resistor is 1kΩ. The output is connected to a 2kΩ load to ground and also through a 2kΩ resistor to the op-amp output. Find the output voltage V0 and currents I1,I0, and Ix.

    Question 3: Consider the system described by the difference equation

    y(n)=56y(n−1)−16(4−n)+x(n).
    Determine whether the system is linear and time-invariant (LTI).

    Question 4: Find P1+P2+⋯+P10 if Pk is the perimeter of a square having side length k.

    Question 5: Find the remaining part of the given diagram:

    Question 6: Find the value of n. If logp1/2⁡y×logy1/2⁡p=16

    Question 7: A MOD- 64 ripple counter can be designed using how many flip-flops?

    A) 4

    B) 5

    C) 6

    D) 7

    Question 8: Find the area of the square shown in the figure whose vertices are at (0,0),(1,1),(2,0) and (1,−1).

    Question 9: Find the 10 's complement of (47)^10.

    Question 10: Find the logic function performed by the below circuit:

    Question 11: Find the cut-off frequency (in GHz ) of rectangular waveguide supporting TE10 mode having dimensions 0.28×0.14 inches.

    Question 12: Identify the type of polarisation for the EM value given, E=E0[cos⁡(ωt+kz)a^x+sin⁡(ωt+kz)a^y]
    (A) Left circularly polarised
    (B) Right circularly polarised
    (C) Linearly polarised
    (D) Left elliptically polarised

    Question 13: What is the dominant transport mechanism for current flow in zener breakdown?
    (A) Drift
    (B) Diffusion
    (C) Ballistic transport
    (D) Tunnelling

    GATE 2026 February 14 CE-2 Memory-based questions Afternoon Session:

    Some memory-based questions are added below:

    Question 1: A portal frame has a span of 4 m(2 m+2 m) and a height of 3 m . The left base is hinged and the right base is roller supported. A horizontal load of 50 kN acts at the top left joint. A vertical concentrated load of 90 kN acts at the midspan of the top beam. Determine the absolute value of the maximum bending moment in the frame.

    Question 2: A bridge has an expected design life of 50 years. It is designed for a flood discharge of 1000 m3/s, which corresponds to a return period of 100 years. Determine the risk (probability) that the design flood will be equalled or exceeded at least once during the design life of the bridge. (Enter the numerical value of risk in decimal form, correct up to three decimal places.)

    Question 3: A rectangular catchment ABCD has an area of 7 hectares. The times of concentration from the four extreme points A, B, C and D to the outlet are 10, 20, 15 and 25 minutes, respectively. The rainfall intensity-duration relationship is given by I=25t+20, where I= rainfall intensity in cm/hr and t= time of concentration in minutes. The runoff coefficient of the catchment is 0.4. Determine the peak discharge from the catchment. (Enter the numerical value only in m3/s.)

    Question 4: Match the following:

    Air pollutantTreatment Tech
    (1) Dust(p) Cyclone seperation
    (2) CO(q) Wet lime water scrubber
    (3) SO2(r) ESP
    (4) Fly ash(s) catalytic convertor
    GNA University M.Tech Admission 2026

    100% Placement Assistance | Avail Merit Scholarships

    Indus University M.Tech Admissions 2026

    Highest CTC 26 LPA | Top Recruiters: Accenture, TCS, Tech Mahindra, Capgemini, Microsoft


    Question 5: Long-term deformation of a material under sustained constant loading is primarily governed by:
    (A) Creep
    (B) Modulus of toughness
    (C) Modulus of resilience
    (D) Yield strength

    Question 6: Given the following data: x:(−2,1,2), y:(28,4,16). Let P2(x) be the quadratic interpolating polynomial passing through the above three points. Find the value of P2(0).

    Question 7: Which of the following methods are used to check whether the flexural stresses in a prestressed concrete beam remain within permissible limits at transfer and final stages? Select all the correct option(s).
    (A) Hoyer's effect
    (B) Limiting zone of prestress method
    (C) Magnel's graph
    (D) Load balancing method

    Question 8: Let P=(101010101). Which of the following statements is/are correct?
    (1) PTP=I
    (B) P is skew-symmetric
    (C)The value of each eigenvalue of P is 1
    (D) The trace of P is equal to the sum of its eigenvalues

    Question 9: Bag-I contains 4 white and 6 black balls, Bag-II contains 4 white and 3 black balls. A ball is selected at random and it comes out to be a black ball. What is the probability that it is from Bag I?

    Question 10: Algae is used where?
    A) Septic tank
    B) Oxidation Pond
    C) Trickling filter
    D) Slow Sand filter


    Topics

    Marks

    General Aptitude

    15

    Engineering Mathematics

    13

    Strength of materials

    5

    Structural Analysis

    4

    Reinforced Cement Concrete

    6

    Design of steel structures

    2

    Building material construction

    0

    Construction management

    0

    Geotechnical engineering

    13

    Fluid Mechanics

    8

    Engineering hydrology

    4

    Irrigation Engineering

    1

    Environmental engineering

    11

    Transportation engineering

    11

    Surveying

    7


    GATE 2026 CE-1 February 14 Memory-Based questions(Forenoon Session)

    ParameterDetails
    ExamGraduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2026 – Civil Engineering CE-1 (14 Feb, Shift 1)
    DifficultyModerate to slightly tough; core questions conceptual and lengthy
    Question MixMCQs, MSQs, and NAT with heavy technical focus
    High-Weightage AreasGeotechnical Engineering, Transportation Engineering, Environmental Engineering, Engineering Mathematics
    Student FeedbackGeneral Aptitude scoring; core Civil section time-consuming with theory-based and calculation-intensive questions
    ParameterDetails
    ExamGraduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2026 – Civil Engineering CE-1 (14 Feb, Shift 1)
    DifficultyModerate to slightly tough; core questions conceptual and lengthy
    Question MixMCQs, MSQs, and NAT with heavy technical focus
    High-Weightage AreasGeotechnical Engineering, Transportation Engineering, Environmental Engineering, Engineering Mathematics
    Student FeedbackGeneral Aptitude scoring; core Civil section time-consuming with theory-based and calculation-intensive questions


    Memory-Based Question

    Question 1: Consider a soil sample where the following parameters are defined:
    S = Soil suction head
    K= Hydraulic conductivity
    w= Moisture content

    If the moisture content (w) of the soil increases, which of the following statements regarding the soil suction head (S) and hydraulic conductivity (K) is correct?

    (A) Both S and K increase.
    (B) Both S and K decrease.
    (C) S increases while K decreases.
    (D) S decreases while K increases.

    Question 2: A clay deposit is found to have a natural water content and void ratio that corresponds to a preconsolidation pressure ( σp′ ) that is greater than the present effective overburden pressure ( σo′ ). This clay is best classified as:
    (A) OCC (Over Consolidated Clay)
    (B) LCC (Lightly Consolidated Clay)
    (C) NCC (Normally Consolidated Clay)
    (D) Quick Clay

    Question 3: For a two-lane, two-way highway, the length of a summit curve is ideally designed based on which parameter to ensure full operational efficiency (overtaking opportunities)?
    (A) Lateral friction ( f )
    (B) Centrifugal acceleration ( ac )
    (C) Stopping Sight Distance (SSD)
    (D) Overtaking Sight Distance (OSD)

    Question 4: In a rectangular open channel, a hydraulic jump occurs. The ratio of the post-jump depth (y2) to the pre-jump depth (y1) is measured to be 2 . What is the Froude number (Fr1) of the flow immediately before the jump?
    (A) 2
    (B) 1.5
    (C) 3
    (D) 2.5

    Question 5: Match the Gradually Varied Flow (GVF) profiles on a mild slope ( M1,M2,M3 ) with the nature of their water surface slope (dy/dx) relative to the flow direction.
    Profile \& Nature of Slope (dy/dx)
    P. M1 Profile \& 1. Positive (Rising Curve)
    Q. M2 Profile \& 2. Negative (Drawdown Curve)
    R. M3 Profile \& 3. Positive (Rising Curve)

    Select the correct classification:
    (A) M1 is Rising, M2 is Rising, M3 is Falling
    (B) M1 is Rising, M2 is Falling, M3 is Rising
    (C) M1 is Falling, M2 is Rising, M3 is Falling
    (D) M1 is Rising, M2 is Falling, M3 is Falling

    Question 6: The Rational Method formula for estimating peak runoff is given as Q=CiA360. For the result Q to be in cubic meters per second (m3/s), what must be the units of rainfall intensity (i) and catchment area (A) ?
    (A) i in cm/hr, A in km2
    (B) i in mm/hr, A in km2
    (C) i in mm/hr, A in hectares
    (D) i in m/hr, A in hectares

    Overall Analysis

    Overall difficulty level: The overall difficulty level of the exam was Moderate to slightly tough.

    The General Aptitude section was scoring and the core civil engineering section was conceptual and lengthy. The core technical section contained lengthy and conceptual questions.

    Number of questions asked

    Topics

    Marks

    General Aptitude

    15

    Engineering Mathematics

    13

    Strength of materials

    2

    Structural Analysis

    4

    Reinforced Cement Concrete

    4

    Design of steel structures

    3

    Building material construction

    3

    Construction management

    1

    Geotechnical engineering

    15

    Fluid Mechanics

    6

    Engineering hydrology

    4

    Irrigation Engineering

    3

    Environmental engineering

    9

    Transportation engineering

    11

    Surveying

    7


    GATE 2026 February 14 EE Memory-based questions Forenoon Session:

    ParameterDetails
    ExamGraduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2026 – EE (14 Feb, Shift 1)
    DifficultyModerate, conceptual but lengthy
    Question MixMCQ: 35–40, MSQ: 12–15, NAT: 10–15
    Key TopicsEMFT, Machines, Power Systems, Power Electronics, Analog, Linear Algebra, Differential Equations
    Student FeedbackTime-consuming with focus on numerical accuracy

    Memory-based questions:

    Question 1: Given an open-loop transfer function GH=100s(s+100) for a unity feedback system with a unit step input r(t)=u(t), determine the rise time tr.

    Question 2: Consider a linear time-invariant system represented by the state-space equation:

    x˙=[ab−a0]x+[10]u
    The closed-loop poles of the system are located at −2±j3. The value of the parameter b is:
    (A) 3.25
    (B) -3.25
    (C) 13
    (D) -13

    Question 3: Consider a linear active two-terminal network connected across terminals Y and Z. If the Thevenin equivalent resistance ( RTH ) of this network is calculated to be 0Ω, the network behaves essentially as an?
    (A) Ideal Current Source
    (B) Ideal Voltage Source
    (C) Practical Voltage Source
    (D) Open Circuit

    Question 4: A single-phase two-winding transformer is rated at 15kVA, 1100/220 V. It is reconnected as an autotransformer with a voltage rating of 1320/1100 V. Find the kVA rating of the autotransformer?

    Question 5: Which of the following statements is correct about the small-signal voltage gain of single-stage MOSFET amplifiers? Consider the statement: "Both common source and common gate amplifiers are inverting amplifiers."
    (A) The statement is correct.
    (B) The statement is incorrect.

    Question 6: For the inverting operational amplifier circuit shown below, determine the closed-loop voltage gain ( Acl=Vout /Vin ). The op-amp has an open-loop gain AOL=105.
    (A) -20
    (B) 20
    (C) -19.996
    (D) -20.042

    Question 7: If P and Q are positive integers such that P^2=Q^2+13, find the value of the product PQ.
    (A) 13
    (B) 42
    (C) 49
    (D) 36

    GATE 2026 February 8 CSE Memory based questions Forenoon Session:

    Question 1: Let M be a Non deterministic Finite Automara (NFA) with 6 state over Finite Alphabet. which of the Following can't be No. of states in minimal deterministic Finite Autonata. that is Equivalent to m
    A) 1
    B) 32
    C) 65
    D) 128

    Question 2: Consider the following C statement:
    char * str1 = "Hello"; // stmt S
    char * str2 = "Hello"; // stmt S.
    char * str3 = "Hello" || stmt S 3

    Which of the following are correct?
    (A) S1 and S2 are lexical errors
    (B) S2 is lexical and S3 is semantic
    (C) S2 is syntax and S3 is semantic
    (D) S1 is lexical and S3 is syntax

    Question 3: Which of the following is always true for LL(1) parser?
    (A) Grammar must be left factored
    (B) LL(1) parser is more powerful than SLR(1).
    (C) LL(1) is non back tracking.
    (D) Grammar must be left recursive.

    Question 4:Consider a relation R(A,B,C,D) and functional dependencies of X→Y. Which of the following statement are correct?
    (A) If PQ→R, then P→R or Q→R.
    (B) If P→R and Q→S, then PQ→RS.
    (C) If P→R, then PQ→R.
    (D) If PQ→R and P→R, then Q→R.

    Question 5: For n>1, the maximum multiplicity of any eigenvalue of an n×n matrix with real entries is?
    (A) n−1
    (B) n+1
    (C) n
    (D) 1

    Question 6: Which of the following is correct about the TCP connection?
    (A) Two-way handshaking.
    (B) TCP is half duplex.
    (C) The server can't initiate closing of connection before client.
    (D) Client and server initiate closing connection at same time.

    Question 7: There are 5 processes in a system. The maximum number of records a process can take is 2 . At a time, a process can take only a single resource and can free only a single resource. How many records are required to ensure deadlock-free execution ____ ?

    Question 8: Consider TLB, cache and MMU with paging. Which is never be true?
    (A) TLB miss, PT hit, cache hit
    (B) TLB miss, PT miss, cache miss
    (C) TLB miss, PT miss, cache hit
    (D) TLB hit, PT miss, cache hit

    Question 9: A n×n, n>1. If (1,0,1,0,0,…,0)∈R n belongs to the null space of A then?
    (A) |A| = 0
    (B) |A| = 1
    (C) Rank A=1
    (D) There are at least 2 non zero vectors in the null space of A.

    Question 10: An unbiased six faced dice whose faces are marked with 1,2,3,4,5 and 6 is rolled twice. The probability that the number appearing in the second roll is an integer multiple of the number appearing in the first roll?
    (A) 1/6
    (B) 5/18
    (C) 7/18
    (D) 5/6

    GATE 2026 CSE Question Paper 8 Feb Afternoon Session:

    This section has been updated with the memory-based questions of GATE 2026 CSE second shift question paper.

    Question 1: Consider three machines M,N, and P with IP addresses 100.10.5.2, 100.10.5.5, and 100.10.5.6 respectively. The subnet mask is set to 255.255 .255 .252 for all the three machines. Which one of the following is true?
    (A) M,N, and P all belong to the same subnet
    (B) Only M and N belong to the same subnet
    (C) Only N and P belong to the same subnet
    (D) M,N, and P belong to three different subnets

    Question 2: Assume that in a certain computer, the virtual addresses are 64 bits long and the physical addresses are 48 bits long. The memory is word addressible. The page size is 8 kB and the word size is 4 bytes. The Translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB) in the address translation path has 128 valid entries. At most how many distinct virtual addresses can be translated without any TLB miss?
    (A) 16×210
    (B) 256×210
    (C) 4×220
    (D) 8×220

    Question 3: An array of 25 distinct elements is to be sorted using quicksort. Assume that the pivot element is chosen uniformly at random. The probability that the pivot element gets placed in the worst possible location in the first round of partitioning (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is?

    Question 4: Which of the following protocol pairs can be used to send and retrieve e-mails (in that order)?
    (A) IMAP, POP3
    (B) SMTP, POP3
    (C) SMTP, MIME
    (D) IMAP, SMTP

    Question 5: Which one of the following kinds of derivation is used by LR parsers?
    (A) Leftmost
    (B) Leftmost in reverse
    (C) Rightmost
    (D) Rightmost in reverse

    Question 6: A certain processor uses a fully associative cache of size 16 kB. The cache block size is 16 bytes. Assume that the main memory is byte addressable and uses a 32 -bit address. How many bits are required for the Tag and the Index fields respectively in the addresses generated by the processor?
    (A) 24 bits and 0 bits
    (B) 28 bits and 4 bits
    (C) 24 bits and 4 bits
    (D) 28 bits and 0 bits

    Question 7: The search engine's business model around the fulcrum of trust.
    (A) revolves
    (B) plays
    (C) sinks
    (D) bursts

    Question 8: A day can only be cloudy or sunny. The prob. of day being cloudy is 0.5 , independent of the condition on other days. What is prob. that in any given four days, there will be 3 cloudy days 1 \& one sunny day?
    (A) 1/4
    (B) 2/3
    (C) 3/4
    (D) 3/8

    Question 9: A die is thrown twice. What is the probability that sum of the outcomes is a prime no.?
    (A) 15/36
    (B) 19/36
    (C) 13/36
    (D) 3/36

    Question 10: Let R be a binary relation on the set A={1,2,…,10} defined by (x,y)∈R⟺xy is a perfect square. Which of the following properties does R satisfy?
    (A) Symmetric
    (B) Antisymmetric
    (C) Transitive
    (D) Reflexive

    Question 11: Which of the following CPU scheduling algo cannot be pre-emptive?
    (A) RR (Round Robin)
    (B) SRTF (Shortest Remaining Time First)
    (C) Priority
    (D) FCFS (First Come First Served)

    Question 12: If an IP network uses a S.M of 255.255.208.0, the max number of IP add. that can be assigned to network interfaces is ____ .

    GATE 2026 February 7 Memory Based Questions:

    Below, we have provided the shift-wise GATE 2026 February 7 memory-based questions. These questions will help aspirants analyse the GATE 2026 exam pattern, difficulty level, and important topics.

    GATE 2026 February 7 Shift 2 Question Paper: Chemistry

    Question 1: For a first-order reaction, the unit of rate constant is?
    (A) molL−1s−1
    (B) s−1
    (C) L mol−1 s−1
    (D) molL−1

    Question 2: Which ligand causes maximum crystal field splitting?
    (A) F−
    (B) H2O
    (C) NH3
    (D) CN−

    Question 3: The standard electrode potential of the standard hydrogen electrode (SHE) is?
    (A) +1.00 V
    (B) -1.00 V
    (C) 0.00 V
    (D) +0.76 V

    Question 4: In IR spectroscopy, which bond absorbs at the highest wavenumber?
    (A) C-C
    (B) C=C
    (C) C≡C
    (D) O−H

    Question 5: The magnetic behavior of a compound with all electrons paired is?
    (A) Paramagnetic
    (B) Ferromagnetic
    (C) Diamagnetic
    (D) Antiferromagnetic

    Question 7: Which of the following reagents converts an aldehyde selectively into a primary alcohol?
    (A) PCC
    (B) KMnO4
    (C) LiAlH4
    (D) CrO3

    Question 8: For an ideal gas, which of the following thermodynamic quantities depends only on temperature?
    (A) Enthalpy
    (B) Entropy
    (C) Gibbs free energy
    (D) Pressure

    GATE 2026 February 7 Shift 2 Question Paper: Biotechnology

    Question 1: Which of the following bonds is responsible for maintaining the secondary structure of proteins?
    (A) Peptide bond
    (B) Hydrogen bond
    (C) Disulfide bond
    (D) Ionic bond

    Question 2: Which microorganism is commonly used for industrial production of ethanol?
    (A) Escherichia coli
    (B) Bacillus subtilis
    (C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
    (D) Lactobacillus

    Question 3: Which of the following is a recessive genetic disorder?
    (A) Huntington's disease
    (B) Sickle cell anemia
    (C) Achondroplasia
    (D) Marfan syndrome

    Question 4: Vaccine that uses a piece of microbial DNA to produce antigen in the host is known as?
    (A) Live attenuated vaccine
    (B) Inactivated vaccine
    (C) Conjugate vaccine
    (D) DNA vaccine

    Question 5: In a Monod model describing microbial growth, the specific growth rate μ is given by μ = μ max S K s + S what is the ratio S/K?

    Question 6: Which parameter is most commonly controlled in a bioreactor?
    (A) Light intensity
    (B) pH
    (C) Pressure
    (D) Sound

    Question 7: Which enzyme is responsible for synthesis of RNA from a DNA template?
    (A) DNA polymerase
    (B) RNA polymerase
    (C) Reverse transcriptase
    (D) DNA ligase

    Question 8: Which antibody class is most abundant in human serum?
    (A) lg⁡A
    (B) lg⁡D
    (C) lg⁡E
    (D) lg⁡G

    Question 9: The most commonly used technique for separation of proteins is?
    (A) Centrifugation
    (B) Chromatography
    (C) Filtration
    (D) Precipitation

    GATE 2026 February 7 Shift 1 Question Paper: Life Science (XL)

    Question 1: Not a storage polysaccharide?

    (A) dextron
    (B) chitin
    (C) starch
    (D) Glycogen

    Question 2: Which of the following amino acids is essential in human diet?
    (A) Alanine
    (B) Glycine
    (C) Valine
    (D) Glutamic acid

    Question 3: Which phase of the cell cycle is known as the resting phase?
    (A) G1 phase
    (B) S phase
    (C) G2 phase
    (D) M phase

    Question 4: Which of the following is a stop codon?
    (A) AUG
    (B) UGG
    (C) UGA
    (D) UAC

    Question 5: A compound containing 1 chinal Carbon?

    (A) Leucine
    (B) Serine
    (C) Isoleveine
    (D) Threonine

    Question 6: The process of conversion of nitrogen into ammonia by bacteria is called?
    (A) Nitrification
    (B) Denitrification
    (C) Nitrogen fixation
    (D) Ammonification

    Question 7: Which pyramid is always upright in an ecosystem?
    (A) Pyramid of energy
    (B) Pyramid of biomass
    (C) Pyramid of numbers
    (D) All of the above

    Question 8: The DNA double helix is stabilized primarily by:
    (A) Covalent bonds
    (B) Hydrogen bonds
    (C) Ionic bonds
    (D) Van der Waals forces

    GATE 2026 February 7 Shift 1 Question Paper: Engineering Science

    Question 1: Hooke's law is valid up to:
    (A) Breaking point
    (B) Yield point
    (C) Elastic limit
    (D) Ultimate stress

    Question 2: The value of the determinant |1234| is:
    (A) -2
    (B) 2
    (C) -5
    (D) 5

    Question 3: σx=−40MPu, σy=100MPu, σxy=50MPu

    Then radius of Mohrs circle=?

    Question 4: The Poisson's ratio for an incompressible material is:
    (A) 0
    (B) 0.25
    (C) 0.33
    (D) 0.5

    Question 5: The mode of heat transfer which does not require a material medium is:
    (A) Conduction
    (B) Convection
    (C) Radiation
    (D) Diffusion

    Question 6: For an ideal gas undergoing an isothermal process, which of the following remains constant?
    (A) Pressure
    (B) Temperature
    (C) Volume
    (D) Entropy

    Question 7: Which dimensionless number represents the ratio of inertial forces to viscous forces?
    (A) Reynolds number
    (B) Froude number
    (C) Mach number
    (D) Weber number

    GATE 2026 Exam Analysis: Difficulty Level and Highlights

    The GATE 2026 question paper provides an overview of the overall difficulty level, section wise performance, and key highlights. This analysis will help students understand the exam trend and assess their performance.

    GATE 2026 8 Feb Exam Analysis

    You can use the GATE 2026, 8 Feb paper analysis given in the form of table below. The GATE question paper analysis highlights the overall difficulty level, section-wise weightage, and key topics covered.

    GATE 2026 CSE Question Paper 8 Feb Analysis

    Subjects

    1 mark question

    2 mark question

    General aptitude

    5

    5

    Engineering maths

    4


    database

    3

    2

    Operating system

    2

    2

    Computer organization and architecture

    3

    3

    Compiler design

    1

    2

    Theory of computation

    1

    3

    Digital logic design

    1

    2

    Discrete maths

    1

    2

    Computer network

    2

    2

    Algorithm

    2

    4

    Programming and data structure

    3

    3

    GATE 2026 7 Feb Exam Analysis

    GATE 2026 February 7 Shift 2 Question Paper: Chemistry

    SectionDifficulty LevelKey Highlights
    General AptitudeEasy to ModerateMost scoring section; verbal, reasoning, and basic numericals
    Physical ChemistryModerate to DifficultCalculation-heavy NATs; thermodynamics, kinetics, electrochemistry, quantum chemistry
    Organic ChemistryModerateMechanism-based questions; intermediates, stereochemistry, spectroscopy, pericyclic reactions
    Inorganic ChemistryModerate to ToughConceptual questions from coordination chemistry, organometallics, cluster compounds
    Overall PaperModerate to DifficultTricky MSQs, calculation-intensive NATs, concept-focused rather than memory-based

    GATE 2026 February 7 Shift 1 Question Paper: Life Science (XL)

    SectionDifficulty LevelKey Topics AskedRemarks
    General Aptitude (GA)EasyDice, Pythagoras theorem, Age problems, Distance problemsStraightforward and scoring
    ChemistryModerateOrganic reaction mechanisms (SN1/SN2), Nitric acid reactions, Buffer solutions, Coordination compoundsConcept-based, required clarity in fundamentals
    BiochemistryEasyPentose phosphate pathway, Enzyme kinetics, Turnover numberMore MSQ & NAT questions than usual; scoring for prepared students
    BotanyModerate to ToughConceptual and analytical plant science questionsRequired in-depth understanding
    MicrobiologyModerateCore microbiology conceptsBalanced mix of theory and application
    ZoologyModerately ChallengingMetabolic pathways, Enzyme kinetics, Receptor–ligand interactionConceptual and slightly lengthy
    Food TechnologyEasyBasic food science and processing conceptsEasiest and most scoring section for many candidates

    GATE 2026 February 7 Shift 1 Question Paper: Engineering Science

    SectionDifficulty LevelNature of QuestionsKey Topics Asked
    Engineering Mathematics (XE-A)ModerateConceptual + NumericalStandard engineering mathematics topics
    Fluid Mechanics (XE-B)ModerateTheory + Statement-BasedNavier–Stokes equations, Pipe flow losses, Dimensional analysis, Potential flow, Boundary layer theory
    Materials Science (XE-C)ModerateConceptualFundamental material behavior and properties
    Solid Mechanics (XE-D)Moderate to ToughNumerical + ConceptualBending moment diagrams, Mohr’s circle, Torsion of shafts, Stress–strain relations
    Thermodynamics (XE-E)Easy to Moderate (Lengthy)Theory + NumericalOtto & Diesel cycles, First & Second Laws, Properties of pure substances

    GATE 2026 Subject-wise Weightage

    The GATE 2026 question paper consists of 65 questions, including multiple choice questions (MCQs), multiple select questions (MSQs), and numerical answer types (NATs). The distribution of marks as per the GATE exam pattern is as follows:

    Particulars

    Weightage of Marks

    General Aptitude

    15%

    Engineering Mathematics

    13% (if present)

    Core Subject Papers

    72%

    Also Read: How to Prepare for GATE

    Download GATE Previous Year Question Papers PDF

    Solving previous year questions (PYQs) is one of the smartest ways to prepare for GATE 2026. It helps you understand the exam pattern, focus on important topics, and practice real exam-level questions effectively. You can download question paper from the link given below:

    Download GATE 2025 Previous Year Question Papers PDF

    GATE 2025 question papers are useful to enhance your preparation. Check it below:

    GATE 2025 Aerospace Engineering (AE) Paper and Answer key

    GATE 2025 Agricultural Engineering (AG) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Architecture and Planning (AR) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Biomedical Engineering (BM) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Biotechnology (BT) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Civil Engineering (CE-1) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Civil Engineering (CE-2) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Chemical Engineering (CH) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Computer Science and IT (CS-1) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Computer Science and IT (CS-2) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Chemistry (CY) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Data Science and AI (DA) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Electronics and Communication (EC) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Electrical Engineering (EE) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Environmental Science (ES) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Ecology and Evolution (EY) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Geomatics Engineering (GE) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Geology - GG-1 Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Geophysics - GG-2 Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Instrumentation Engineering (IN) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Mathematics (MA) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Mechanical Engineering (ME) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Mining Engineering (MN) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Metallurgical Engineering (MT) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Naval Arch. & Marine Engg. (NM) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Petroleum Engineering (PE) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Physics (PH) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Production and Industrial (PI) Paper and Answer Key

    GATE 2025 Statistics (ST) Paper and Answer Key

    Download GATE 2024 Previous Year Question Papers PDF

    Download GATE 2023 Previous Year Question Papers PDF

    Download GATE 2022 Previous Year Question Papers PDF

    Download GATE 2021 Previous Year Question Papers PDF


    GATE 2026 Question Paper Code and Marking Scheme

    The following table helps you under the marking scheme of each paper code of GATE 2026 exam:

    Paper Code

    General Aptitude (GA) Marks

    Subject Marks

    Total Marks

    Total Time (Minutes)

    AE, AG, BM, BT, CE, CH, CS, CY, EC, EE, ES, EY, IN, MA, ME, MN, MT, NM, PE, PH, PI, ST, TF

    15

    85

    100

    180

    AR [Part A + Part B1 or B2 (B1: Architecture or B2: Planning)]

    B1 or B2 can be selected during the Exam.

    15

    60 + 25

    100

    180

    GE [Part A + Part B1 or B2 (B1 - Surveying and Mapping or B2 -Image Processing and Analysis)] B1 or B2 can be selected during the Exam.

    15

    55 + 30

    100

    180

    GG [Part A + Part B]

    (Section 1: Geology or Section 2: Geophysics)

    15

    25 + 60

    100

    180

    XE (Section A + Any TWO Sections)

    Sections can be selected during the Exam.

    15

    15 + (2 x 35)

    100

    180

    XH (Section B1 + Any ONE Section)

    15

    25 + 60

    100

    180

    XL (Section P + Any TWO Sections)

    Sections can be selected during the Exam.

    15

    25 + (2 x 30)

    100

    180

    Also Read:


    GATE 2026 Preparation Tips

    Understand the Exam Pattern – To crack GATE 2026, the first step is to understand the exam pattern. The best way to do this is by solving previous year papers, as they help us identify the types of questions asked and the level of difficulty

    Focus on Repeated Topics – By solving previous year papers, we get to know which topics are frequently repeated and which are not. This helps us decide which topics deserve more focus and which require less time, ensuring better time management during preparation.

    Improve Speed and Accuracy – When we regularly practice previous year papers, it helps us improve our problem-solving skills. Our speed increases, allowing us to manage time effectively, and we also avoid making silly mistakes.

    Build Exam Strategy – When we regularly solve previous year papers, we build a clear exam strategy. We understand which section to attempt first, which to attempt later, which sections are time-consuming, and how much time to spend on each question. All this strategy develops naturally when we make solving previous year papers a regular habit.



    Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

    Q: Will the GATE 2026 question paper be based on the same syllabus as previous years?
    A:

    Yes, the GATE 2026 question paper will follow the same syllabus. Any change in it will be announced on the website beforehand.

    Q: How many questions are there in the GATE 2026 question paper, and what types are included?
    A:

    The GATE question paper consists of 65 questions divided into MCQs, MSQs, and NATs. The total marks are 100, and the paper duration is 3 hours. General Aptitude carries 15 marks, while the rest is from core subjects.

    Q: Are previous year question papers helpful for GATE 2026 preparation?
    A:

    Yes, solving previous year papers helps in understanding question patterns, difficulty levels, and time management. It also highlights important topics frequently asked in the exam and boosts problem-solving confidence.

    Articles
    |
    Upcoming Engineering Exams
    Ongoing Dates
    BITS HD Application Date

    18 Feb'26 - 20 Apr'26 (Online)

    Certifications By Top Providers
    B.Tech Engineering Technology
    Via Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani
    Certificate Program in Machine Learning and AI with Python
    Via Indian Institute of Technology Bombay
    Post Graduate Diploma Program in Data Science and Artificial Intelligence
    Via Indraprastha Institute of Information Technology, Delhi
    Computer Fundamentals
    Via Devi Ahilya Vishwavidyalaya, Indore
    Programming Basics
    Via Indian Institute of Technology Bombay
    C-Based VLSI Design
    Via Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati
    Udemy
     1525 courses
    Swayam
     817 courses
    NPTEL
     773 courses
    Coursera
     697 courses
    Edx
     608 courses
    Explore Top Universities Across Globe

    Questions related to GATE

    On Question asked by student community

    Have a question related to GATE ?

    Every PSU has different cut-off marks and eligibility. Hence, it is suggested to apply for PSU after checking the eligibility. Also, they do not reveal the marks of the finally selected candidates. So, wait for the final merit list.

    Yes. You can. GATE eligibility specifies that students in their 3rd year and above can appear for the exam. Since the results are valid for 3 years, you can use the same for your admissions.

    If you score 500 marks in GATE2026, your chances of getting into good engineering colleges (especially NITs, IIITs and some older IITs) are strong for most disciplines, while top branches like CSE/EEE/ECE at older IITs may still require higher ranks. Your GATE AllIndia Rank (AIR) with 500 marks usually falls