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GATE 2026 Question Paper - The GATE 2026 Question Paper plays an important role in helping students understand the exam pattern, difficulty level, and topic-wise weightage across different subjects. IIT Guwahati has uploaded the candidate response, master question paper, and master answer key for GATE exam 2026 on the GOAPS portal for candidates to check their recorded responses. The GATE 2026 paper is one of the most awaited resources for engineering aspirants appearing for the exam. The GATE exams scheduled for February 7, 8, 14, and 15 have been successfully concluded across all shifts, and the memory-based questions for each session have been fully updated accordingly. To help students analyse the latest exam pattern and difficulty level, this article provides GATE question papers.
Latest - GATE 2026 Feb 7 Paper Analysis | GATE 2026 Feb 8 Paper Analysis
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GATE is the entrance examination taken by engineering graduates who wish to pursue further studies or secure a job at Indian Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs). To crack GATE 2026, the best method is to solve previous year papers. Solving these PYQs will help aspirants understand topic-wise weightage, improve accuracy, and build a strong strategy for upcoming attempts and PSU/PG admissions.
Also read: GATE: How to Prepare for Chemical Engineering
Below, we have provided the shift-wise unofficial GATE 2026 questions that are collected from students to help future aspirants understand the exam pattern and key topics.
The afternoon session of the GATE 2026 DA paper held on February 15 has now concluded. Below, we have compiled memory-based questions shared by candidates to help you analyse the exam pattern, important topics, and overall difficulty level.
Question 1: Which of the following is not an uninformed search?
(A) DFS
(B) BFS
(C) A*
(D) DLS
Question 2: Node size = 4096 B
Node pointer =10 B
Search key = 11 B
Record pointer = 12 B
Find the maximum number of node pointers.
Question 3: Which of the following recurrence relations represents the average case time complexity of QuickSort?
(A) T(n)=T(n/4)+T(3n/4)+O(n)
(B) T(n)=2T(n/2)+O(n)
(C) T(n)=1n∑k=0n−1[T(k)+T(n−k−1)]+O(n)
(D) T(n)=T(1)+T(n−1)+O(n)
Question 4: Consider the relation R(A,B,C,D,E)
Functional Dependencies:
A→BC, CD→E, E→A
Find the number of candidate keys.
Question 5: Which of the following logical statements is not valid?
(A) ∀xP(x)⇒∃x¬P(x)
(B) ∀xP(x)⇒∃xP(x)
(C) ∃xP(x)⇒∀xP(x)
(D) ∃xP(x)⇔∀xP(x)
Question 6: Consider a binary tree whose preorder traversal is
P,Q,S,E,R,F,G
and inorder traversal is
S,Q,E,P,F,R,G.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Node Q has only one child.
(B) Postorder traversal is S,E,Q,F,G,R,P.
(C) P is the root of the tree.
(D) The left subtree of node R contains node G.
Question 7: Consider the Visualisation of a 3-dimensional data cube showing sales quantity for each combination of attributes: Product type, Month and Country. From the visualization, to see the sales quantity for each combination, which of following OLAP operations should be performed?
(A) Slice
(B) Dicing
(C) Rollup
(D) drill down
Question 8: Consider the ER model:
E1 (A11, A12, A13)
E2 (A21, A22, A23)
Where:
- A21 is the key of E2
- A22 is a multivalued attribute
- R12 is a many-to-many relationship between E1 and E2
Find the minimum number of relations required to convert this ER model into tables.
The forenoon session of the GATE 2026 EC paper held on February 15 has now concluded. Below, we have compiled memory-based questions shared by candidates to help you analyse the exam pattern, important topics, and overall difficulty level.
Question 1: Find the transmission Parameters.

Question 2: In the given op-amp circuit, the non-inverting terminal is grounded. The input voltage is 2 V applied through 1kΩ. The feedback resistor is 1kΩ. The output is connected to a 2kΩ load to ground and also through a 2kΩ resistor to the op-amp output. Find the output voltage V0 and currents I1,I0, and Ix.

Question 3: Consider the system described by the difference equation
y(n)=56y(n−1)−16(4−n)+x(n).
Determine whether the system is linear and time-invariant (LTI).
Question 4: Find P1+P2+⋯+P10 if Pk is the perimeter of a square having side length k.
Question 5: Find the remaining part of the given diagram:

Question 6: Find the value of n. If logp1/2y×logy1/2p=16
Question 7: A MOD- 64 ripple counter can be designed using how many flip-flops?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
Question 8: Find the area of the square shown in the figure whose vertices are at (0,0),(1,1),(2,0) and (1,−1).

Question 9: Find the 10 's complement of (47)^10.
Question 10: Find the logic function performed by the below circuit: 
Question 11: Find the cut-off frequency (in GHz ) of rectangular waveguide supporting TE10 mode having dimensions 0.28×0.14 inches.
Question 12: Identify the type of polarisation for the EM value given, E=E0[cos(ωt+kz)a^x+sin(ωt+kz)a^y]
(A) Left circularly polarised
(B) Right circularly polarised
(C) Linearly polarised
(D) Left elliptically polarised
Question 13: What is the dominant transport mechanism for current flow in zener breakdown?
(A) Drift
(B) Diffusion
(C) Ballistic transport
(D) Tunnelling
Some memory-based questions are added below:
Question 1: A portal frame has a span of 4 m(2 m+2 m) and a height of 3 m . The left base is hinged and the right base is roller supported. A horizontal load of 50 kN acts at the top left joint. A vertical concentrated load of 90 kN acts at the midspan of the top beam. Determine the absolute value of the maximum bending moment in the frame.
Question 2: A bridge has an expected design life of 50 years. It is designed for a flood discharge of 1000 m3/s, which corresponds to a return period of 100 years. Determine the risk (probability) that the design flood will be equalled or exceeded at least once during the design life of the bridge. (Enter the numerical value of risk in decimal form, correct up to three decimal places.)
Question 3: A rectangular catchment ABCD has an area of 7 hectares. The times of concentration from the four extreme points A, B, C and D to the outlet are 10, 20, 15 and 25 minutes, respectively. The rainfall intensity-duration relationship is given by I=25t+20, where I= rainfall intensity in cm/hr and t= time of concentration in minutes. The runoff coefficient of the catchment is 0.4. Determine the peak discharge from the catchment. (Enter the numerical value only in m3/s.)
Question 4: Match the following:
| Air pollutant | Treatment Tech |
| (1) Dust | (p) Cyclone seperation |
| (2) CO | (q) Wet lime water scrubber |
| (3) SO2 | (r) ESP |
| (4) Fly ash | (s) catalytic convertor |
Question 5: Long-term deformation of a material under sustained constant loading is primarily governed by:
(A) Creep
(B) Modulus of toughness
(C) Modulus of resilience
(D) Yield strength
Question 6: Given the following data: x:(−2,1,2), y:(28,4,16). Let P2(x) be the quadratic interpolating polynomial passing through the above three points. Find the value of P2(0).
Question 7: Which of the following methods are used to check whether the flexural stresses in a prestressed concrete beam remain within permissible limits at transfer and final stages? Select all the correct option(s).
(A) Hoyer's effect
(B) Limiting zone of prestress method
(C) Magnel's graph
(D) Load balancing method
Question 8: Let P=(101010101). Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) PTP=I
(B) P is skew-symmetric
(C)The value of each eigenvalue of P is 1
(D) The trace of P is equal to the sum of its eigenvalues
Question 9: Bag-I contains 4 white and 6 black balls, Bag-II contains 4 white and 3 black balls. A ball is selected at random and it comes out to be a black ball. What is the probability that it is from Bag I?
Question 10: Algae is used where?
A) Septic tank
B) Oxidation Pond
C) Trickling filter
D) Slow Sand filter
|
Topics |
Marks |
|
General Aptitude |
15 |
|
Engineering Mathematics |
13 |
|
Strength of materials |
5 |
|
Structural Analysis |
4 |
|
Reinforced Cement Concrete |
6 |
|
Design of steel structures |
2 |
|
Building material construction |
0 |
|
Construction management |
0 |
|
Geotechnical engineering |
13 |
|
Fluid Mechanics |
8 |
|
Engineering hydrology |
4 |
|
Irrigation Engineering |
1 |
|
Environmental engineering |
11 |
|
Transportation engineering |
11 |
|
Surveying |
7 |
| Parameter | Details |
|---|---|
| Exam | Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2026 – Civil Engineering CE-1 (14 Feb, Shift 1) |
| Difficulty | Moderate to slightly tough; core questions conceptual and lengthy |
| Question Mix | MCQs, MSQs, and NAT with heavy technical focus |
| High-Weightage Areas | Geotechnical Engineering, Transportation Engineering, Environmental Engineering, Engineering Mathematics |
| Student Feedback | General Aptitude scoring; core Civil section time-consuming with theory-based and calculation-intensive questions |
| Parameter | Details |
|---|---|
| Exam | Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2026 – Civil Engineering CE-1 (14 Feb, Shift 1) |
| Difficulty | Moderate to slightly tough; core questions conceptual and lengthy |
| Question Mix | MCQs, MSQs, and NAT with heavy technical focus |
| High-Weightage Areas | Geotechnical Engineering, Transportation Engineering, Environmental Engineering, Engineering Mathematics |
| Student Feedback | General Aptitude scoring; core Civil section time-consuming with theory-based and calculation-intensive questions |
Question 1: Consider a soil sample where the following parameters are defined:
S = Soil suction head
K= Hydraulic conductivity
w= Moisture content
If the moisture content (w) of the soil increases, which of the following statements regarding the soil suction head (S) and hydraulic conductivity (K) is correct?
(A) Both S and K increase.
(B) Both S and K decrease.
(C) S increases while K decreases.
(D) S decreases while K increases.
Question 2: A clay deposit is found to have a natural water content and void ratio that corresponds to a preconsolidation pressure ( σp′ ) that is greater than the present effective overburden pressure ( σo′ ). This clay is best classified as:
(A) OCC (Over Consolidated Clay)
(B) LCC (Lightly Consolidated Clay)
(C) NCC (Normally Consolidated Clay)
(D) Quick Clay
Question 3: For a two-lane, two-way highway, the length of a summit curve is ideally designed based on which parameter to ensure full operational efficiency (overtaking opportunities)?
(A) Lateral friction ( f )
(B) Centrifugal acceleration ( ac )
(C) Stopping Sight Distance (SSD)
(D) Overtaking Sight Distance (OSD)
Question 4: In a rectangular open channel, a hydraulic jump occurs. The ratio of the post-jump depth (y2) to the pre-jump depth (y1) is measured to be 2 . What is the Froude number (Fr1) of the flow immediately before the jump?
(A) 2
(B) 1.5
(C) 3
(D) 2.5
Question 5: Match the Gradually Varied Flow (GVF) profiles on a mild slope ( M1,M2,M3 ) with the nature of their water surface slope (dy/dx) relative to the flow direction.
Profile \& Nature of Slope (dy/dx)
P. M1 Profile \& 1. Positive (Rising Curve)
Q. M2 Profile \& 2. Negative (Drawdown Curve)
R. M3 Profile \& 3. Positive (Rising Curve)
Select the correct classification:
(A) M1 is Rising, M2 is Rising, M3 is Falling
(B) M1 is Rising, M2 is Falling, M3 is Rising
(C) M1 is Falling, M2 is Rising, M3 is Falling
(D) M1 is Rising, M2 is Falling, M3 is Falling
Question 6: The Rational Method formula for estimating peak runoff is given as Q=CiA360. For the result Q to be in cubic meters per second (m3/s), what must be the units of rainfall intensity (i) and catchment area (A) ?
(A) i in cm/hr, A in km2
(B) i in mm/hr, A in km2
(C) i in mm/hr, A in hectares
(D) i in m/hr, A in hectares
Overall difficulty level: The overall difficulty level of the exam was Moderate to slightly tough.
The General Aptitude section was scoring and the core civil engineering section was conceptual and lengthy. The core technical section contained lengthy and conceptual questions.
Number of questions asked
|
Topics |
Marks |
|
General Aptitude |
15 |
|
Engineering Mathematics |
13 |
|
Strength of materials |
2 |
|
Structural Analysis |
4 |
|
Reinforced Cement Concrete |
4 |
|
Design of steel structures |
3 |
|
Building material construction |
3 |
|
Construction management |
1 |
|
Geotechnical engineering |
15 |
|
Fluid Mechanics |
6 |
|
Engineering hydrology |
4 |
|
Irrigation Engineering |
3 |
|
Environmental engineering |
9 |
|
Transportation engineering |
11 |
|
Surveying |
7 |
| Parameter | Details |
|---|---|
| Exam | Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2026 – EE (14 Feb, Shift 1) |
| Difficulty | Moderate, conceptual but lengthy |
| Question Mix | MCQ: 35–40, MSQ: 12–15, NAT: 10–15 |
| Key Topics | EMFT, Machines, Power Systems, Power Electronics, Analog, Linear Algebra, Differential Equations |
| Student Feedback | Time-consuming with focus on numerical accuracy |
Memory-based questions:
Question 1: Given an open-loop transfer function GH=100s(s+100) for a unity feedback system with a unit step input r(t)=u(t), determine the rise time tr.
Question 2: Consider a linear time-invariant system represented by the state-space equation:
x˙=[ab−a0]x+[10]u
The closed-loop poles of the system are located at −2±j3. The value of the parameter b is:
(A) 3.25
(B) -3.25
(C) 13
(D) -13
Question 3: Consider a linear active two-terminal network connected across terminals Y and Z. If the Thevenin equivalent resistance ( RTH ) of this network is calculated to be 0Ω, the network behaves essentially as an?
(A) Ideal Current Source
(B) Ideal Voltage Source
(C) Practical Voltage Source
(D) Open Circuit
Question 4: A single-phase two-winding transformer is rated at 15kVA, 1100/220 V. It is reconnected as an autotransformer with a voltage rating of 1320/1100 V. Find the kVA rating of the autotransformer?
Question 5: Which of the following statements is correct about the small-signal voltage gain of single-stage MOSFET amplifiers? Consider the statement: "Both common source and common gate amplifiers are inverting amplifiers."
(A) The statement is correct.
(B) The statement is incorrect.
Question 6: For the inverting operational amplifier circuit shown below, determine the closed-loop voltage gain ( Acl=Vout /Vin ). The op-amp has an open-loop gain AOL=105.
(A) -20
(B) 20
(C) -19.996
(D) -20.042
Question 7: If P and Q are positive integers such that P^2=Q^2+13, find the value of the product PQ.
(A) 13
(B) 42
(C) 49
(D) 36
Question 1: Let M be a Non deterministic Finite Automara (NFA) with 6 state over Finite Alphabet. which of the Following can't be No. of states in minimal deterministic Finite Autonata. that is Equivalent to m
A) 1
B) 32
C) 65
D) 128
Question 2: Consider the following C statement:
char * str1 = "Hello"; // stmt S
char * str2 = "Hello"; // stmt S.
char * str3 = "Hello" || stmt S 3
Which of the following are correct?
(A) S1 and S2 are lexical errors
(B) S2 is lexical and S3 is semantic
(C) S2 is syntax and S3 is semantic
(D) S1 is lexical and S3 is syntax
Question 3: Which of the following is always true for LL(1) parser?
(A) Grammar must be left factored
(B) LL(1) parser is more powerful than SLR(1).
(C) LL(1) is non back tracking.
(D) Grammar must be left recursive.
Question 4:Consider a relation R(A,B,C,D) and functional dependencies of X→Y. Which of the following statement are correct?
(A) If PQ→R, then P→R or Q→R.
(B) If P→R and Q→S, then PQ→RS.
(C) If P→R, then PQ→R.
(D) If PQ→R and P→R, then Q→R.
Question 5: For n>1, the maximum multiplicity of any eigenvalue of an n×n matrix with real entries is?
(A) n−1
(B) n+1
(C) n
(D) 1
Question 6: Which of the following is correct about the TCP connection?
(A) Two-way handshaking.
(B) TCP is half duplex.
(C) The server can't initiate closing of connection before client.
(D) Client and server initiate closing connection at same time.
Question 7: There are 5 processes in a system. The maximum number of records a process can take is 2 . At a time, a process can take only a single resource and can free only a single resource. How many records are required to ensure deadlock-free execution ____ ?
Question 8: Consider TLB, cache and MMU with paging. Which is never be true?
(A) TLB miss, PT hit, cache hit
(B) TLB miss, PT miss, cache miss
(C) TLB miss, PT miss, cache hit
(D) TLB hit, PT miss, cache hit
Question 9: A n×n, n>1. If (1,0,1,0,0,…,0)∈R n belongs to the null space of A then?
(A) |A| = 0
(B) |A| = 1
(C) Rank A=1
(D) There are at least 2 non zero vectors in the null space of A.
Question 10: An unbiased six faced dice whose faces are marked with 1,2,3,4,5 and 6 is rolled twice. The probability that the number appearing in the second roll is an integer multiple of the number appearing in the first roll?
(A) 1/6
(B) 5/18
(C) 7/18
(D) 5/6
This section has been updated with the memory-based questions of GATE 2026 CSE second shift question paper.
Question 1: Consider three machines M,N, and P with IP addresses 100.10.5.2, 100.10.5.5, and 100.10.5.6 respectively. The subnet mask is set to 255.255 .255 .252 for all the three machines. Which one of the following is true?
(A) M,N, and P all belong to the same subnet
(B) Only M and N belong to the same subnet
(C) Only N and P belong to the same subnet
(D) M,N, and P belong to three different subnets
Question 2: Assume that in a certain computer, the virtual addresses are 64 bits long and the physical addresses are 48 bits long. The memory is word addressible. The page size is 8 kB and the word size is 4 bytes. The Translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB) in the address translation path has 128 valid entries. At most how many distinct virtual addresses can be translated without any TLB miss?
(A) 16×210
(B) 256×210
(C) 4×220
(D) 8×220
Question 3: An array of 25 distinct elements is to be sorted using quicksort. Assume that the pivot element is chosen uniformly at random. The probability that the pivot element gets placed in the worst possible location in the first round of partitioning (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is?
Question 4: Which of the following protocol pairs can be used to send and retrieve e-mails (in that order)?
(A) IMAP, POP3
(B) SMTP, POP3
(C) SMTP, MIME
(D) IMAP, SMTP
Question 5: Which one of the following kinds of derivation is used by LR parsers?
(A) Leftmost
(B) Leftmost in reverse
(C) Rightmost
(D) Rightmost in reverse
Question 6: A certain processor uses a fully associative cache of size 16 kB. The cache block size is 16 bytes. Assume that the main memory is byte addressable and uses a 32 -bit address. How many bits are required for the Tag and the Index fields respectively in the addresses generated by the processor?
(A) 24 bits and 0 bits
(B) 28 bits and 4 bits
(C) 24 bits and 4 bits
(D) 28 bits and 0 bits
Question 7: The search engine's business model around the fulcrum of trust.
(A) revolves
(B) plays
(C) sinks
(D) bursts
Question 8: A day can only be cloudy or sunny. The prob. of day being cloudy is 0.5 , independent of the condition on other days. What is prob. that in any given four days, there will be 3 cloudy days 1 \& one sunny day?
(A) 1/4
(B) 2/3
(C) 3/4
(D) 3/8
Question 9: A die is thrown twice. What is the probability that sum of the outcomes is a prime no.?
(A) 15/36
(B) 19/36
(C) 13/36
(D) 3/36
Question 10: Let R be a binary relation on the set A={1,2,…,10} defined by (x,y)∈R⟺xy is a perfect square. Which of the following properties does R satisfy?
(A) Symmetric
(B) Antisymmetric
(C) Transitive
(D) Reflexive
Question 11: Which of the following CPU scheduling algo cannot be pre-emptive?
(A) RR (Round Robin)
(B) SRTF (Shortest Remaining Time First)
(C) Priority
(D) FCFS (First Come First Served)
Question 12: If an IP network uses a S.M of 255.255.208.0, the max number of IP add. that can be assigned to network interfaces is ____ .
Below, we have provided the shift-wise GATE 2026 February 7 memory-based questions. These questions will help aspirants analyse the GATE 2026 exam pattern, difficulty level, and important topics.
Question 1: For a first-order reaction, the unit of rate constant is?
(A) molL−1s−1
(B) s−1
(C) L mol−1 s−1
(D) molL−1
Question 2: Which ligand causes maximum crystal field splitting?
(A) F−
(B) H2O
(C) NH3
(D) CN−
Question 3: The standard electrode potential of the standard hydrogen electrode (SHE) is?
(A) +1.00 V
(B) -1.00 V
(C) 0.00 V
(D) +0.76 V
Question 4: In IR spectroscopy, which bond absorbs at the highest wavenumber?
(A) C-C
(B) C=C
(C) C≡C
(D) O−H
Question 5: The magnetic behavior of a compound with all electrons paired is?
(A) Paramagnetic
(B) Ferromagnetic
(C) Diamagnetic
(D) Antiferromagnetic
Question 6:

Question 7: Which of the following reagents converts an aldehyde selectively into a primary alcohol?
(A) PCC
(B) KMnO4
(C) LiAlH4
(D) CrO3
Question 8: For an ideal gas, which of the following thermodynamic quantities depends only on temperature?
(A) Enthalpy
(B) Entropy
(C) Gibbs free energy
(D) Pressure
Question 1: Which of the following bonds is responsible for maintaining the secondary structure of proteins?
(A) Peptide bond
(B) Hydrogen bond
(C) Disulfide bond
(D) Ionic bond
Question 2: Which microorganism is commonly used for industrial production of ethanol?
(A) Escherichia coli
(B) Bacillus subtilis
(C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(D) Lactobacillus
Question 3: Which of the following is a recessive genetic disorder?
(A) Huntington's disease
(B) Sickle cell anemia
(C) Achondroplasia
(D) Marfan syndrome
Question 4: Vaccine that uses a piece of microbial DNA to produce antigen in the host is known as?
(A) Live attenuated vaccine
(B) Inactivated vaccine
(C) Conjugate vaccine
(D) DNA vaccine
Question 5: In a Monod model describing microbial growth, the specific growth rate μ is given by μ = μ max S K s + S what is the ratio S/K?
Question 6: Which parameter is most commonly controlled in a bioreactor?
(A) Light intensity
(B) pH
(C) Pressure
(D) Sound
Question 7: Which enzyme is responsible for synthesis of RNA from a DNA template?
(A) DNA polymerase
(B) RNA polymerase
(C) Reverse transcriptase
(D) DNA ligase
Question 8: Which antibody class is most abundant in human serum?
(A) lgA
(B) lgD
(C) lgE
(D) lgG
Question 9: The most commonly used technique for separation of proteins is?
(A) Centrifugation
(B) Chromatography
(C) Filtration
(D) Precipitation
Question 1: Not a storage polysaccharide?
(A) dextron
(B) chitin
(C) starch
(D) Glycogen
Question 2: Which of the following amino acids is essential in human diet?
(A) Alanine
(B) Glycine
(C) Valine
(D) Glutamic acid
Question 3: Which phase of the cell cycle is known as the resting phase?
(A) G1 phase
(B) S phase
(C) G2 phase
(D) M phase
Question 4: Which of the following is a stop codon?
(A) AUG
(B) UGG
(C) UGA
(D) UAC
Question 5: A compound containing 1 chinal Carbon?
(A) Leucine
(B) Serine
(C) Isoleveine
(D) Threonine
Question 6: The process of conversion of nitrogen into ammonia by bacteria is called?
(A) Nitrification
(B) Denitrification
(C) Nitrogen fixation
(D) Ammonification
Question 7: Which pyramid is always upright in an ecosystem?
(A) Pyramid of energy
(B) Pyramid of biomass
(C) Pyramid of numbers
(D) All of the above
Question 8: The DNA double helix is stabilized primarily by:
(A) Covalent bonds
(B) Hydrogen bonds
(C) Ionic bonds
(D) Van der Waals forces
Question 1: Hooke's law is valid up to:
(A) Breaking point
(B) Yield point
(C) Elastic limit
(D) Ultimate stress
Question 2: The value of the determinant |1234| is:
(A) -2
(B) 2
(C) -5
(D) 5
Question 3: σx=−40MPu, σy=100MPu, σxy=50MPu
Then radius of Mohrs circle=?
Question 4: The Poisson's ratio for an incompressible material is:
(A) 0
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.33
(D) 0.5
Question 5: The mode of heat transfer which does not require a material medium is:
(A) Conduction
(B) Convection
(C) Radiation
(D) Diffusion
Question 6: For an ideal gas undergoing an isothermal process, which of the following remains constant?
(A) Pressure
(B) Temperature
(C) Volume
(D) Entropy
Question 7: Which dimensionless number represents the ratio of inertial forces to viscous forces?
(A) Reynolds number
(B) Froude number
(C) Mach number
(D) Weber number
The GATE 2026 question paper provides an overview of the overall difficulty level, section wise performance, and key highlights. This analysis will help students understand the exam trend and assess their performance.
You can use the GATE 2026, 8 Feb paper analysis given in the form of table below. The GATE question paper analysis highlights the overall difficulty level, section-wise weightage, and key topics covered.
|
Subjects |
1 mark question |
2 mark question |
|
General aptitude |
5 |
5 |
|
Engineering maths |
4 | |
|
database |
3 |
2 |
|
Operating system |
2 |
2 |
|
Computer organization and architecture |
3 |
3 |
|
Compiler design |
1 |
2 |
|
Theory of computation |
1 |
3 |
|
Digital logic design |
1 |
2 |
|
Discrete maths |
1 |
2 |
|
Computer network |
2 |
2 |
|
Algorithm |
2 |
4 |
|
Programming and data structure |
3 |
3 |
| Section | Difficulty Level | Key Highlights |
|---|---|---|
| General Aptitude | Easy to Moderate | Most scoring section; verbal, reasoning, and basic numericals |
| Physical Chemistry | Moderate to Difficult | Calculation-heavy NATs; thermodynamics, kinetics, electrochemistry, quantum chemistry |
| Organic Chemistry | Moderate | Mechanism-based questions; intermediates, stereochemistry, spectroscopy, pericyclic reactions |
| Inorganic Chemistry | Moderate to Tough | Conceptual questions from coordination chemistry, organometallics, cluster compounds |
| Overall Paper | Moderate to Difficult | Tricky MSQs, calculation-intensive NATs, concept-focused rather than memory-based |
| Section | Difficulty Level | Key Topics Asked | Remarks |
|---|---|---|---|
| General Aptitude (GA) | Easy | Dice, Pythagoras theorem, Age problems, Distance problems | Straightforward and scoring |
| Chemistry | Moderate | Organic reaction mechanisms (SN1/SN2), Nitric acid reactions, Buffer solutions, Coordination compounds | Concept-based, required clarity in fundamentals |
| Biochemistry | Easy | Pentose phosphate pathway, Enzyme kinetics, Turnover number | More MSQ & NAT questions than usual; scoring for prepared students |
| Botany | Moderate to Tough | Conceptual and analytical plant science questions | Required in-depth understanding |
| Microbiology | Moderate | Core microbiology concepts | Balanced mix of theory and application |
| Zoology | Moderately Challenging | Metabolic pathways, Enzyme kinetics, Receptor–ligand interaction | Conceptual and slightly lengthy |
| Food Technology | Easy | Basic food science and processing concepts | Easiest and most scoring section for many candidates |
| Section | Difficulty Level | Nature of Questions | Key Topics Asked |
|---|---|---|---|
| Engineering Mathematics (XE-A) | Moderate | Conceptual + Numerical | Standard engineering mathematics topics |
| Fluid Mechanics (XE-B) | Moderate | Theory + Statement-Based | Navier–Stokes equations, Pipe flow losses, Dimensional analysis, Potential flow, Boundary layer theory |
| Materials Science (XE-C) | Moderate | Conceptual | Fundamental material behavior and properties |
| Solid Mechanics (XE-D) | Moderate to Tough | Numerical + Conceptual | Bending moment diagrams, Mohr’s circle, Torsion of shafts, Stress–strain relations |
| Thermodynamics (XE-E) | Easy to Moderate (Lengthy) | Theory + Numerical | Otto & Diesel cycles, First & Second Laws, Properties of pure substances |
The GATE 2026 question paper consists of 65 questions, including multiple choice questions (MCQs), multiple select questions (MSQs), and numerical answer types (NATs). The distribution of marks as per the GATE exam pattern is as follows:
|
Particulars |
Weightage of Marks |
|
General Aptitude |
15% |
|
Engineering Mathematics |
13% (if present) |
|
Core Subject Papers |
72% |
Also Read: How to Prepare for GATE
Solving previous year questions (PYQs) is one of the smartest ways to prepare for GATE 2026. It helps you understand the exam pattern, focus on important topics, and practice real exam-level questions effectively. You can download question paper from the link given below:
GATE 2025 question papers are useful to enhance your preparation. Check it below:
The following table helps you under the marking scheme of each paper code of GATE 2026 exam:
|
Paper Code |
General Aptitude (GA) Marks |
Subject Marks |
Total Marks |
Total Time (Minutes) |
|
AE, AG, BM, BT, CE, CH, CS, CY, EC, EE, ES, EY, IN, MA, ME, MN, MT, NM, PE, PH, PI, ST, TF |
15 |
85 |
100 |
180 |
|
AR [Part A + Part B1 or B2 (B1: Architecture or B2: Planning)] B1 or B2 can be selected during the Exam. |
15 |
60 + 25 |
100 |
180 |
|
GE [Part A + Part B1 or B2 (B1 - Surveying and Mapping or B2 -Image Processing and Analysis)] B1 or B2 can be selected during the Exam. |
15 |
55 + 30 |
100 |
180 |
|
GG [Part A + Part B] (Section 1: Geology or Section 2: Geophysics) |
15 |
25 + 60 |
100 |
180 |
|
XE (Section A + Any TWO Sections) Sections can be selected during the Exam. |
15 |
15 + (2 x 35) |
100 |
180 |
|
XH (Section B1 + Any ONE Section) |
15 |
25 + 60 |
100 |
180 |
|
XL (Section P + Any TWO Sections) Sections can be selected during the Exam. |
15 |
25 + (2 x 30) |
100 |
180 |
Also Read:
Understand the Exam Pattern – To crack GATE 2026, the first step is to understand the exam pattern. The best way to do this is by solving previous year papers, as they help us identify the types of questions asked and the level of difficulty
Focus on Repeated Topics – By solving previous year papers, we get to know which topics are frequently repeated and which are not. This helps us decide which topics deserve more focus and which require less time, ensuring better time management during preparation.
Improve Speed and Accuracy – When we regularly practice previous year papers, it helps us improve our problem-solving skills. Our speed increases, allowing us to manage time effectively, and we also avoid making silly mistakes.
Build Exam Strategy – When we regularly solve previous year papers, we build a clear exam strategy. We understand which section to attempt first, which to attempt later, which sections are time-consuming, and how much time to spend on each question. All this strategy develops naturally when we make solving previous year papers a regular habit.
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
Yes, the GATE 2026 question paper will follow the same syllabus. Any change in it will be announced on the website beforehand.
The GATE question paper consists of 65 questions divided into MCQs, MSQs, and NATs. The total marks are 100, and the paper duration is 3 hours. General Aptitude carries 15 marks, while the rest is from core subjects.
Yes, solving previous year papers helps in understanding question patterns, difficulty levels, and time management. It also highlights important topics frequently asked in the exam and boosts problem-solving confidence.
On Question asked by student community
The cutoff marks for OBC category students are different for different paper codes. You can check the article on Gate cutoff for all the detailed information. Hope it helps.
IIT Guwahati has released GATE exam ME answer key in online mode. Here we have provided direct link to download IIT Guwahati Mechanical Engineering answer key.- Download Here
Students can download the ebooks from the link given below.
The official GATE 2026 Shift 2 (Feb 8) answer key was released by IIT Guwahati on February 22, 2026, on the GOAPS portal.
Check out the GATE 2026 February 8 Question Paper with Solutions .
Hi Raj, please check the link for GATE Agricultural Engineering question paper 2026 to know about the syllabus and the topic covered.
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