28 Questions around this concept.
The solution for of the equation
is
The value of $\int_0^1 x^{-1 / 2}(1-x)^{-1 / 2} d x$ is equal to
The value of the integral
$\int_{1}^{3}\left ( \left ( x-2 \right )^{4}\sin^{3}\left (x -2 \right )+\left ( x+2 \right )^{2019}+1 \right )dx$
is
JEE Main 2026: College Predictor | Official Question Papers
New: Apply to Multiple B.Tech Colleges Through Free 1:1 Counselling
Comprehensive Guide: IIT's | NIT's | IIIT's | Foreign Universities in India
We have already learned to find Indefinite Integration by using the substitution method. But in the case of definite integration, we also need to change the limits of integration 'a' and 'b'. If we substitute x = g(t), then g(t) must be continuous in the interval [a, b].
Let's look at some examples of how such questions are solved.
Example 1
Compute the integral $\int_0^{\pi / 2} \frac{d x}{a^2 \cos ^2 x+b^2 \sin ^2 x}$
Let $\quad I=\int_{x=0}^{x=\pi / 2} \frac{d x}{a^2 \cos ^2 x+b^2 \sin ^2 x}$
Divide numerator and denominator by $\cos ^2 x$
$
=\int_{x=0}^{x=\pi / 2} \frac{\sec ^2 x d x}{a^2+b^2 \tan ^2 x}
$
Put $\quad \tan x=t \Rightarrow \sec ^2 x d x=d t$
$
\therefore \quad I=\int_{t=0}^{t=\infty} \frac{d t}{a^2+b^2 t^2}
$
We find the new limits of integration $t=\tan x \Rightarrow t=0$ when $x=0$ and $t=\infty$ when $x=\pi / 2$
$
\begin{aligned}
\Rightarrow \quad I & =\frac{1}{b^2} \int_0^{\infty} \frac{d t}{\left(\frac{a}{b}\right)^2+t^2}=\frac{1}{b^2} \cdot \frac{1}{a / b}\left[\tan ^{-1} \frac{b t}{a}\right]_0^{\infty} \\
& =\frac{1}{a b}\left[\frac{\pi}{2}-0\right]=\frac{\pi}{2 a b}
\end{aligned}
$
"Stay in the loop. Receive exam news, study resources, and expert advice!"