UPES B.Tech Admissions 2024
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JEE Advanced Exam Pattern 2024 - IIT Madras has released the JEE Advanced 2024 exam pattern in the information brochure at jeeadv.nic.in. Candidates can also check the complete exam pattern of JEE Advanced 2024 on this page. The JEE Advanced exam pattern will provide details about the types of questions, mode of paper, exam duration, JEE Advanced marking scheme and more. The authority conducted the JEE Advanced 2024 on May 26, 2024. Along with the exam pattern candidates must be aware of the JEE Advanced syllabus 2024. Moreover, candidates can also practice the mock test of JEE Advanced to boost their preparation.
As per the JEE Advanced paper pattern 2024, the JEE Advanced exam will be held as a computer-based test. The JEE Advanced paper pattern pdf has three sections- Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. It is also advisable to check the previous year's JEE Advanced question papers from this page to understand the exam pattern in a better way. Read the full article to know more about the JEE Advanced exam pattern 2024, previous year question papers, syllabus, and more.
As per the JEE Advanced 2024 paper pattern, the exam will be conducted online mode having two papers- Paper 1 and Paper 2. For both papers, 3 hours will be given to candidates. JEE Advanced 2024 question paper pattern has multiple-choice questions with a single answer; questions with multiple answers, numerical value questions along with matching-type questions. The aspirants searching "Is there a negative marking in JEE Advanced 2024" must know that JEE Advanced has the concept of full, partial, and zero marks. Candidates can refer to the table below to understand the Jee Advanced exam pattern 2024 papers 1 and 2.
Sections | Type of questions | Marking scheme | Maximum marks |
1 | Sec-I had 08 questions of Numerical Based Decimal Type with answer correct to 2 decimal digits. | Full marks: +3 for the correct answer Zero Marks: 0 in all other cases | 24 |
2 | Sec-II had (06) Six questions with four options in which one or more than one option(s) were correct. | Full marks: +4 If only (all) the correct options are chosen Partial Marks: +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three correct options are chosen Partial Marks: +2 If three or more options are correct but only two correct options are chosen Partial Marks: +1 If two or more options are correct but only one correct option is chosen Zero Marks:: 0 If none of the options are chosen Negative Marks: -2 In all other cases | 24 |
3 | Sec-III had 04 questions with each question of Match List type i.e. Match List-I to List-II. List-I had 4 questions to be matched to List-II which had 5 options. One or more than one options were correct. | Full marks: +3 in case all options are correct, Zero Marks:: 0 if none of the options are chosen Negative Marks: -1 In all other cases | 12 |
Particulars | Details |
Mode of the examination | Computer-based examination |
Medium of the examination | English and Hindi |
Number of Papers | Two compulsory papers- Paper 1 and Paper 2 |
Total time duration | 3 hours for each paper (4 hours for PwD candidates) |
Number of sections | Both papers include 3 sections- Paper 1-
Paper 2-
|
Number of questions | 54 (18 questions in each subject) |
Marking Scheme | The exam has a concept of full, partial and zero marks. |
JEE Advanced Exam Date 2024 | JEE Advanced Eligibility Criteria 2024 |
JEE Advanced 2024 Preparation Tips | Best Colleges in India Accepting JEE Advanced |
As mentioned earlier, the JEE Advanced exam pattern 2024 for both papers varies every year, candidates can check the previous year's exam pattern to have an idea of JEE Advanced paper 1 and paper 2 differences. It should be noted that the JEE Advanced exam pattern does not differ much so candidates can consider this paper pattern. Refer to the following tables to understand the exam pattern of JEE Advanced in previous years.
Section | Question Type | Number of Questions | Marking scheme | ||||
Full marks | Partial Marks | Zero Marks | Negative Marks | Maximum Marks for the section | |||
1 | Single Correct Option | 6 | +3 If only the correct answer is selected | - | 0 If none of the options are chosen | -1 (in all other cases) | 18 |
2 | One or more option (s) is correct | 6 | +4 – If the correct option(s) is selected | +3 – If all four options are correct, but only three options are chosen+2 – If three or more options are correct, but only two options are chosen, both of which are correct options. +1 – If two or more options are correct, but only one option is chosen, and it is a correct option. | No marks will be awarded if no attempt is made | -2: In all other cases | 24 |
3 | Numerical Value Answer | 6 | +4 – If only the correct numerical value is entered | - | 0 In all other cases | - | 24 |
Section | Question Type | Number of Questions | Marking scheme | ||||
Full marks | Partial Marks | Zero Marks | Negative Marks | Maximum Marks for the section | |||
1 | MCQs with 4 options (one or more than one correct option) | 6 | +4 if only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen | +3 if all four options are correct, but only three options are chosen +2 if three or more options are correct, but only two options are chosen, both of the options must be correct +1 if two or more options are correct, but only one option is chosen, and it must be correct | 0 If none of the options are chosen | -2 (in all other cases) | 24 |
2 | Numerical value answer type questions | 6 | +4 if only the correct numerical value is given | - | No marks will be awarded if no attempt is made | - | 24 |
3 | Single-digit integer answer (0-9) | 6 | +3 if only the correct integer is entered | - | 0 In all other cases | -1 in all other cases | 18 |
Section | Question Type | Number of Questions | Marking scheme | ||||
Full marks | Partial Marks | Zero Marks | Negative Marks | Maximum Marks for the section | |||
1 | Single Correct Option | 6 | +3 If only the correct answer is selected | - | 0 If none of the options are chosen | -1 in all other cases | 18 |
2 | One or more option (s) is correct | 6 | +4 If the correct option(s) is selected | +3 - If all the four options are correct but only three options are chosen +2 - If three or more options are correct but only two options are chosen, both of which are correct options. +1 - If two or more options are correct but only one option is chosen and it is a correct option. | No marks will be awarded if no attempt is made | -2 In all other cases | 24 |
3 | Numerical Value Answer | 6 | +4 If only the correct numerical value is entered | - | 0 In all other cases | - | 24 |
Section | Question Type | Number of Questions | Marking scheme | ||||
Full marks | Partial Marks | Zero Marks | Negative Marks | Maximum Marks for the section | |||
1 | One or more option (s) is correct | 6 | +4 If the correct option(s) is selected | +3 - If all four options are correct but only three options are chosen +2 - If three or more options are correct but only two options are chosen, both of which are correct options. +1 - If two or more options are correct but only one option is chosen and it is a correct option. | No marks will be awarded if no attempt is made | -2 In all other cases | 24 |
2 | Numerical Value Answer | 6 | +4 If only the correct numerical value is entered | - | 0 In all other cases | - | 24 |
3 | Single digit integer answer (0-9) | 6 | +3 If only the correct integer is entered | - | 0 If none of the options are chosen | -1 in all other cases | 18 |
Section | Question Type | Number of Questions | Marking scheme | ||||
Full marks | Partial Marks | Zero Marks | Negative Marks | Maximum Marks for the section | |||
1 | Single Correct Option | 4 | +3 If only the correct answer is selected | - | 0 If none of the options are chosen | -1 in all other cases | 12 |
2 | One or more option (s) is correct | 8 | +4 If the correct option(s) is selected | +3 - If all the four options are correct but only three options are chosen +2 - If three or more options are correct but only two options are chosen, both of which are correct options. +1 - If two or more options are correct but only one option is chosen and it is a correct option. | No marks will be awarded if no attempt is made | -1 In all other cases | 32 |
3 | Numerical Value Answer | 6 | +3 If only the correct answer is selected | - | 0 In all other cases | - | 18 |
Section | Question Type | Number of Questions | Marking scheme | ||||
Full marks | Partial Marks | Zero Marks | Negative Marks | Maximum Marks for the section | |||
1 | One or more option (s) is correct | 8 | +4 If the correct option(s) is selected | +3 - If all the four options are correct but only three options are chosen +2 - If three or more options are correct but only two options are chosen, both of which are correct options. +1 - If two or more options are correct but only one option is chosen and it is a correct option. | No marks will be awarded if no attempt is made | -1 In all other cases | 32 |
2 | Numerical Value Answer | 6 | +3 If only the correct answer is selected | - | 0 In all other cases | - | 18 |
3 | List Match Sets | 2 Sets (Each set has two multiple choice questions) | +3 If only the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen | - | 0 If none of the options are chosen | -1 in all other cases | 12 |
Section | Question Type | Number of Questions | Marking scheme | ||||
Full marks | Partial Marks | Zero Marks | Negative Marks | Maximum Marks for the section | |||
1 | One or more correct option (s) | 6 | +4 If the correct option(s) is selected | +3 - If all the four options are correct but only three options are chosen +2 - If three or more options are correct but only two options are chosen, both of which are correct options. +1 - If two or more options are correct but only one option is chosen and it is a correct option. | No marks will be awarded if no attempt is made | -2 In all other cases | 24 |
2 | Numerical Value Answer | 8 | +3 If only the correct answer is selected | - | 0 In all other cases | - | 24 |
3 | Single correct option | 4 | +3 If only the correct option is selected | - | 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened | -1 In all other cases | 12 |
Section | Question Type | Category-wise Marks for each section | |||||
No of Questions | Full Marks | Partial Marks | Zero Marks | Negative Marks | Max Marks | ||
1 | One or more correct option (s) | 6 | + 4 If the correct option(s) is ( selected | +3 - If all the four options are correct but only three options are chosen +2 - If three or more options are correct but only two options are chosen, both of which are correct options. +1 - If two or more options are correct but only one option is chosen and it is a correct option. | 0 If no option is selected | -2 In all other cases | 24 |
2 | Numerical Value Answer | 8 | +3 If correct answer is selected | - | 0 In all other cases | 24 | |
3 | Matching List Questions | 4 | +3 If correct matching is chosen. | - | 0 If none of the bubble (s) is/are darkened | -1 In all other cases | 12 |
Total for each subject | 60 marks |
Section | Question Type | Number of Questions | Marking Scheme | ||||
Full marks | Partial Marks | Zero Marks | Negative Marks | Maximum Marks of the section | |||
1 | One or more correct option (s) | 7 | +4 If only correct option (s) is (are) chosen | +1 For selecting each correct option, provided NO incorrect answer option is selected. | 0 If left unanswered | -2 In all other cases | 28 |
2 | Single digit integer - (0-9) | 5 | +3 If only the correct answer is chosen | - | 0 In all other cases | - | 15 |
3 | Single correct option | 6 | +3 If only correct option is chosen | - | 0 If left unanswered | -1 In all other cases | 18 |
Section | Question Type | Marking Scheme | |||||
No of Questions | Full Marks | Partial Marks | Zero Marks | Negative Marks | Max Marks | ||
1 | Single Correct Option | 7 | + 3 If only correct option(s) is (are) selected | - | 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened | -1 In all other cases | 21 |
2 | Multiple correct options | 7 | +3 If correct answer is chosen | + 1 For each correct option selected, provided no incorrect option is chosen | 0 In all other case | -2 In all other cases | 28 |
3 | Comprehension | 4 | +3 | - | 0 If left unanswered | 0 In all other cases | 12 |
Total for each subject | 61 marks |
Section | Question Type | Number of Questions | Full Marks | Partial marks | Zero marks | Negative Marks | Sectional Maximum Marks |
1 | Single correct option | 5 | +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened | - | 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened | -1 In all other cases | 15 |
2 | Multiple correct options | 8 | +4 if only correct option(s) is (are) picked | +1 For each correct option selected, provided NO incorrect option is chosen | 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened | -2 In all other cases | 32 |
3 | Single digit integer (0-9) | 5 | +3 If only the correct answer is chosen | - | 0 In all other cases | - | 15 |
Section | Question Type | Number of Questions | Full Marks | Partial marks | Zero marks | Negative Marks | Sectional Maximum Marks |
1 | Single correct option | 6 | +3 If only correct option is chosen | - | 0 If left unanswered | -1 In all other cases | 18 |
2 | One or more correct option(s) | 8 | +4 if only correct option(s) is or are chosen | +1 For each correct answer option, provided NO correct option is chosen | 0 If no attempt has been made | -2 In all other cases | 32 |
3 | Comprehension | 4 | +3 If only correct answer option is selected | - | 0 In all other cases | - | 12 |
As the JEE Advanced exam pattern differs every year, candidates can check the previous year question papers to understand the pattern in a better way. The following tables can be referred to check the JEE Advanced previous year question papers.
JEE Advanced 2024 will be conducted as a computer-based exam.
The exam will have two compulsory papers- Paper 1 and Paper 2. Both the papers have 3 hours each.
However, the total time for PwD candidates will be 4 hours for each paper.
Both papers have three sections- Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics.
Questions asked in the JEE Advanced exam have multiple choice questions, questions with more than one answer, numerical value questions, integer digit answers, and matching-type questions.
As per the JEE Advanced exam pattern 2024, candidates will be awarded full marks, partial marks, and zero marks as per the answers given by the candidates.
There will be negative markings for some questions.
The examination will be held in English and Hindi language. Candidates can select or switch their preferred language anytime during the examination.
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IIT Madras released the JEE Advanced 2024 syllabus PDF online at jeeadv.nic.in. JEE Advanced syllabus 2024 comprises the topics of the subjects Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. Candidates are advised to check the syllabus of JEE Advanced beforehand to know the correct topics to study for the exam. With the help of the JEE Advanced 2024 exam pattern and syllabus, candidates can check important chapters and topics asked in the exam.
As per the JEE Advanced 2024 exam pattern, the exam was conducted as an online computer-based test.
Yes, in order to qualify the entrance examination, the candidates had to attempt both Paper 1 and Paper 2 of JEE Advanced exam.
As per the JEE Advanced 2024 exam pattern, multiple-choice questions, questions with multiple answers, questions with numerical value as answers, questions with integer digits as answers and list match set questions will be included in the exam.
As per the JEE Advanced exam pattern 2024, negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answers to some questions. The details of the marking scheme will be available in the question paper.
The JEE Advanced 2024 examination will be held in English and Hindi language.
JEE Advanced consists of 108 questions in total, with 54 questions in Paper 1 and 54 questions in Paper 2.
Alliance University Bangalore doesn't specify a single entrance exam for this program on their official website. Here are the possibilities:
No, directly floating your choices to get a higher preference in subsequent JoSAA counselling rounds isn't guaranteed.
JoSAA uses a demand-filling process. In each round, it allocates seats based on candidate preferences, institute/branch choices, and candidate ranks.
If you don't get any of your higher choices (including your 1st choice) in a round, and a seat is available in one of your lower choices (like your 4th choice), JoSAA might allocate that seat to you.
However, there is no guarantee that your 1st choice will become available in later rounds.
During the second round (or any subsequent round), you'll have the option to either freeze your allocated seat (4th choice) or float it. Floating means you're willing to give up your current seat for a chance at a higher preference in the next round.
If you are happy with your allocated seat (4th choice) and don't mind attending that college/branch, you can lock it (freeze). Consider how likely it is for your 1st choice to become available in the next rounds. If the seats for your 1st choice are filling quickly, floating might be a gamble. You might end up with no seat at all in the next round. Floating involves some risk. You might lose your current seat (4th choice) and not get your 1st choice either. Locking secures your current seat but eliminates the possibility of getting your 1st choice.
I hope it helps!
You are eligible for JEE Advanced for two consecutive years starting from the year you appear for your Class 12 board exams.
You gave your 12th board exams in 2024 and attempted JEE Advanced in the same year (2024). You then took a drop and didn't appear for JEE Advanced in 2025. Since you haven't exhausted your two attempts yet, you can appear for JEE Advanced in 2026.
Yes you can get in gfits but cse branch is not sure but other than that you can score a good brand with good gfit . don't worry if you not get seat or branch was un changed you can get csab definitely
Hello,
With a JEE Advanced rank of 3435, you have several good options among the IITs. At this rank, you can consider institutes like IIT Guwahati, which is known for its scenic campus and strong research programs, offering branches such as Biotechnology, Chemical Engineering, and Electronics and Communication Engineering. IIT Roorkee is another excellent option with its rich cultural heritage and strong academic programs, where you might secure branches like Civil Engineering or Material Science.
Additionally, IIT BHU (Varanasi) offers a variety of programs with strong placement records, and you could explore branches such as Mechanical Engineering, Chemical Engineering, or Metallurgical Engineering. Furthermore, newer IITs like IIT Indore, IIT Jodhpur, and IIT Mandi are rapidly growing in reputation and offer excellent opportunities in core engineering branches.
hope this helps,
thank you
The flight attendant job description includes ensuring passenger safety during flights by adhering to safety regulations. Individual pursuing career as flight attendant is also tasked with serving meals and drinks to passengers, but this is mostly a secondary responsibility. A flight attendant is employed by airlines and most of them work on commercial flights, although there is also a market for a private flight attendant (e.g. private charter planes or jets).
Depending on the size of the plane, international safety regulations demand a certain number of Flight Attendants to be on board the aircraft. The standard rule is that there should be one Flight Attendant for every 50 passengers.
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A career in the aviation industry always sounds exciting. But, there is no scope for the slightest error as it may cost the lives of many people. A Flight Engineer role comes with the responsibility of monitoring the aircraft engine and control systems while in flight. Whenever the aircraft is away from the home station, he or she is required to perform pre-flight and post-flight inspections
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A Safety Manager is a professional responsible for employee’s safety at work. He or she plans, implements and oversees the company’s employee safety. A Safety Manager ensures compliance and adherence to Occupational Health and Safety (OHS) guidelines.
Are you searching for an 'airline pilot job description'? An airline pilot or airline commander flies aircraft and helicopters to provide transportation to passengers or cargo. The airline pilot operates the engines of the aircraft and controls them to navigate and fly the airplane. The ability to learn new technologies every time and to stay up-to-date with the changes in the industry is what aviators should possess. The career as airline pilot is also one of the highest-paid professionals and the job is quite coveted.
Welding Engineer Job Description: A Welding Engineer work involves managing welding projects and supervising welding teams. He or she is responsible for reviewing welding procedures, processes and documentation. A career as Welding Engineer involves conducting failure analyses and causes on welding issues.
A career as Transportation Planner requires technical application of science and technology in engineering, particularly the concepts, equipment and technologies involved in the production of products and services. In fields like land use, infrastructure review, ecological standards and street design, he or she considers issues of health, environment and performance. A Transportation Planner assigns resources for implementing and designing programmes. He or she is responsible for assessing needs, preparing plans and forecasts and compliance with regulations.
Individuals who opt for a career as an environmental engineer are construction professionals who utilise the skills and knowledge of biology, soil science, chemistry and the concept of engineering to design and develop projects that serve as solutions to various environmental problems.
A Safety Manager is a professional responsible for employee’s safety at work. He or she plans, implements and oversees the company’s employee safety. A Safety Manager ensures compliance and adherence to Occupational Health and Safety (OHS) guidelines.
A Conservation Architect is a professional responsible for conserving and restoring buildings or monuments having a historic value. He or she applies techniques to document and stabilise the object’s state without any further damage. A Conservation Architect restores the monuments and heritage buildings to bring them back to their original state.
A Structural Engineer designs buildings, bridges, and other related structures. He or she analyzes the structures and makes sure the structures are strong enough to be used by the people. A career as a Structural Engineer requires working in the construction process. It comes under the civil engineering discipline. A Structure Engineer creates structural models with the help of computer-aided design software.
Highway Engineer Job Description: A Highway Engineer is a civil engineer who specialises in planning and building thousands of miles of roads that support connectivity and allow transportation across the country. He or she ensures that traffic management schemes are effectively planned concerning economic sustainability and successful implementation.
Are you searching for a Field Surveyor Job Description? A Field Surveyor is a professional responsible for conducting field surveys for various places or geographical conditions. He or she collects the required data and information as per the instructions given by senior officials.
Individuals who opt for a career as geothermal engineers are the professionals involved in the processing of geothermal energy. The responsibilities of geothermal engineers may vary depending on the workplace location. Those who work in fields design facilities to process and distribute geothermal energy. They oversee the functioning of machinery used in the field.
Individuals who opt for a career as a geologist are required to study the earth's s structure and its various components that are present in solid, liquid, and gaseous forms. In engineering geologist jobs are often found assisting mining companies in the search for precious minerals apart from doing their regular research and survey. Jobs in geology are expected to venture out to remote spots, staying there for a considerable period, regulating the entire group, and persuading colleagues is not a simple activity for everybody. In this article, we will also discuss geologist career path geologist salary in India and geologist career scope.
Energy efficiency engineering is a broad field of engineering which deals with energy efficiency, energy services, facility management, plant engineering, and sustainable energy resources. Energy efficiency engineering is one of the most recent engineering disciplines to emerge. The field combines the knowledge and understanding of physics, chemistry, and mathematics, with economic and environmental engineering practices. The main job of individuals who opt for a career as an energy performance engineer is to find the most efficient and sustainable path to operate buildings and manufacturing processes.
Individuals who opt for a career as energy performance engineers apply their understanding and knowledge to increase efficiency and further develop renewable sources of energy. The energy efficiency engineers also examine the use of energy in those procedures and suggest the ways in which systems can be improved.
A career as a Petroleum engineer is concerned with activities related to producing petroleum. These products can be in the form of either crude oil or natural gas. Petroleum engineering also requires the exploration and refinement of petroleum resources. Therefore, a career as a petroleum engineer comes up with oil and gas onshore jobs. There are also desk jobs in the petroleum industry. In layman’s terms, a petroleum engineer is a person who finds the best way to drill and extract oil from oil wells. Individuals who opt for a career as petroleum engineer also tries to find new ways to extract oil in an efficient manner.
A career as Transportation Planner requires technical application of science and technology in engineering, particularly the concepts, equipment and technologies involved in the production of products and services. In fields like land use, infrastructure review, ecological standards and street design, he or she considers issues of health, environment and performance. A Transportation Planner assigns resources for implementing and designing programmes. He or she is responsible for assessing needs, preparing plans and forecasts and compliance with regulations.
A career as a civil engineer is of great importance for the infrastructural growth of the country. It is one of the most popular professions and there is great professional as well as personal growth in this civil engineering career path. There is job satisfaction in this civil engineering career path, but it also comes with a lot of stress, as there are multiple projects that need to be handled and have to be completed on time. Students should pursue physics, chemistry and mathematics in their 10+2 to become civil engineers.
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As a Transport Engineer, he or she needs to solve complex problems such as accidents, costs, traffic flow, and statistics. A Transport Engineer also collaborates for projects with some other companies.
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